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Can there be multiple energy eigenstates corresponding to the same eigenvalue of a Hamiltonian (Pauli-X)?


Why is the decomposition of a qubit-qutrit Hamiltonian in terms of Pauli and Gell-Mann matrices not unique?Is the Pauli group for $n$-qubits a basis for $mathbbC^2^ntimes 2^n$?Is there a simple rule for the inverse of a Clifford circuit's stabilizer table?How does the stated Pauli decomposition for $operatornameCPcdot Acdot CP$ arise?Definition of the Pauli group and the Clifford groupDecomposition of a matrix in the Pauli basis






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2












$begingroup$


all. I am a high-school student who has recently familiarized himself with linear algebra and is looking to understand quantum computing. So, I bought the classic textbook "Quantum Computation and Quantum Information" by Nielsen and Chuang.



In the book, I came across the problem: find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the Pauli matrices.



I started out with the Pauli-X matrix and correctly found its eigenvalues to be 1 and -1.



When I set about finding the eigenvectors (using the standard methods of linear algebra), however, I found that for an eigenvalue of 1, any scalar multiple of (1 1) would do, and for -1, it could be any scalar multiple of (-1 1).



So suppose that a qubit has a Hamiltonian of hωX (this is an example in the book). Its energy eigenvalues are hω and -hω, and its energy eigenstates are the same as the unit eigenvectors of X.



But based on the results of my above calculation, there are two options per eigenvalue. For hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$, and for -hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle - |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle + |1rangle)$. For each case, aren't these states distinct? Are they both right? The textbook only acknowledges the first state in each case.










share|improve this question









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    2












    $begingroup$


    all. I am a high-school student who has recently familiarized himself with linear algebra and is looking to understand quantum computing. So, I bought the classic textbook "Quantum Computation and Quantum Information" by Nielsen and Chuang.



    In the book, I came across the problem: find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the Pauli matrices.



    I started out with the Pauli-X matrix and correctly found its eigenvalues to be 1 and -1.



    When I set about finding the eigenvectors (using the standard methods of linear algebra), however, I found that for an eigenvalue of 1, any scalar multiple of (1 1) would do, and for -1, it could be any scalar multiple of (-1 1).



    So suppose that a qubit has a Hamiltonian of hωX (this is an example in the book). Its energy eigenvalues are hω and -hω, and its energy eigenstates are the same as the unit eigenvectors of X.



    But based on the results of my above calculation, there are two options per eigenvalue. For hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$, and for -hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle - |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle + |1rangle)$. For each case, aren't these states distinct? Are they both right? The textbook only acknowledges the first state in each case.










    share|improve this question









    New contributor



    QFTUNIverse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






    $endgroup$
















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      all. I am a high-school student who has recently familiarized himself with linear algebra and is looking to understand quantum computing. So, I bought the classic textbook "Quantum Computation and Quantum Information" by Nielsen and Chuang.



      In the book, I came across the problem: find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the Pauli matrices.



      I started out with the Pauli-X matrix and correctly found its eigenvalues to be 1 and -1.



      When I set about finding the eigenvectors (using the standard methods of linear algebra), however, I found that for an eigenvalue of 1, any scalar multiple of (1 1) would do, and for -1, it could be any scalar multiple of (-1 1).



      So suppose that a qubit has a Hamiltonian of hωX (this is an example in the book). Its energy eigenvalues are hω and -hω, and its energy eigenstates are the same as the unit eigenvectors of X.



      But based on the results of my above calculation, there are two options per eigenvalue. For hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$, and for -hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle - |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle + |1rangle)$. For each case, aren't these states distinct? Are they both right? The textbook only acknowledges the first state in each case.










      share|improve this question









      New contributor



      QFTUNIverse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      $endgroup$




      all. I am a high-school student who has recently familiarized himself with linear algebra and is looking to understand quantum computing. So, I bought the classic textbook "Quantum Computation and Quantum Information" by Nielsen and Chuang.



      In the book, I came across the problem: find the eigenvalues and eigenvectors of the Pauli matrices.



      I started out with the Pauli-X matrix and correctly found its eigenvalues to be 1 and -1.



      When I set about finding the eigenvectors (using the standard methods of linear algebra), however, I found that for an eigenvalue of 1, any scalar multiple of (1 1) would do, and for -1, it could be any scalar multiple of (-1 1).



      So suppose that a qubit has a Hamiltonian of hωX (this is an example in the book). Its energy eigenvalues are hω and -hω, and its energy eigenstates are the same as the unit eigenvectors of X.



      But based on the results of my above calculation, there are two options per eigenvalue. For hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$, and for -hω they are $frac1sqrt2(|0rangle - |1rangle)$ and $frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle + |1rangle)$. For each case, aren't these states distinct? Are they both right? The textbook only acknowledges the first state in each case.







      pauli-gates






      share|improve this question









      New contributor



      QFTUNIverse is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      share|improve this question









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      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 8 hours ago









      Mariia Mykhailova

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      asked 8 hours ago









      QFTUNIverseQFTUNIverse

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          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          The quantum states that differ by a global phase (i.e., by a complex number multiple which has absolute value of 1) are considered the same quantum state, since they can not be distinguished using any operations or measurements.



          Thus, the eigenstates for hω are




          • $|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$,


          • $-|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$,


          • $i|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(i|0rangle + i|1rangle)$

          • and any other state you can obtain from $|+rangle$ by multiplying it by a complex number and normalizing it.

          The convention is usually to pick coefficients so that the state has a real positive number as the first coefficient.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$














          • $begingroup$
            Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
            $endgroup$
            – QFTUNIverse
            8 hours ago


















          0












          $begingroup$

          For your more general question in the title, the answer is yes. This is more of a lesson in linear algebra than in quantum computing. What you found out is that actually the set of eigenvectors of a matrix $A$ corresponding to a given eigenvalue $lambda$ forms a vector subspace of the space upon which $A$ acts, this is called the eigenspace of $lambda$, $E_lambda$. As a matter of fact, if $A v_1=lambda v_1$ and $Av_2=lambda v_2$, then $A(alpha v_1+v_2)=lambda(alpha v_1+v_2)$, hence if $v_1,v_2in E_lambda$ then $alpha v_1+v_2in E_lambda$ for all $alpha in mathbbC$.



          Now you might ask, are there even cases where there are two different vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in the same eigenspace? Well you found a trivial one, where the eigenspace is one dimensional, i.e.



          $$ E_pm1=mathrmspanleft(frac1sqrt2(|0ranglepm|1rangle)right)$$



          they're one dimensional vector spaces, as as you noticed you can multiply the vector by any constant and it stays an eigenvector, but consider the matrix



          $$ A=beginpmatrix
          0&1&0\1&0&0\0&0&1
          endpmatrix$$



          you still have the eigenvalue $1$, but now it's different as



          $$v_1=beginpmatrix1\1\0
          endpmatrixv_2=beginpmatrix0\0\1
          endpmatrix $$

          are two linearly independent eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue, meaning that in this case



          $$ E_1=mathrmspan(v_1,v_2)$$
          the eigenspace is two dimensional, all linear combination of these two is an eigenvector with eigenvalue one. In this case we say that the eigenvalue is degenerate, specifically twofold degenerate or with degeneracy 2.



          The most extreme example if of course the identity matrix, which has only one eigenvalue, $1$, and the eigenspace is the whole vector space.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$

















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            The quantum states that differ by a global phase (i.e., by a complex number multiple which has absolute value of 1) are considered the same quantum state, since they can not be distinguished using any operations or measurements.



            Thus, the eigenstates for hω are




            • $|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$,


            • $-|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$,


            • $i|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(i|0rangle + i|1rangle)$

            • and any other state you can obtain from $|+rangle$ by multiplying it by a complex number and normalizing it.

            The convention is usually to pick coefficients so that the state has a real positive number as the first coefficient.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$














            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
              $endgroup$
              – QFTUNIverse
              8 hours ago















            2












            $begingroup$

            The quantum states that differ by a global phase (i.e., by a complex number multiple which has absolute value of 1) are considered the same quantum state, since they can not be distinguished using any operations or measurements.



            Thus, the eigenstates for hω are




            • $|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$,


            • $-|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$,


            • $i|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(i|0rangle + i|1rangle)$

            • and any other state you can obtain from $|+rangle$ by multiplying it by a complex number and normalizing it.

            The convention is usually to pick coefficients so that the state has a real positive number as the first coefficient.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$














            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
              $endgroup$
              – QFTUNIverse
              8 hours ago













            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            The quantum states that differ by a global phase (i.e., by a complex number multiple which has absolute value of 1) are considered the same quantum state, since they can not be distinguished using any operations or measurements.



            Thus, the eigenstates for hω are




            • $|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$,


            • $-|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$,


            • $i|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(i|0rangle + i|1rangle)$

            • and any other state you can obtain from $|+rangle$ by multiplying it by a complex number and normalizing it.

            The convention is usually to pick coefficients so that the state has a real positive number as the first coefficient.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The quantum states that differ by a global phase (i.e., by a complex number multiple which has absolute value of 1) are considered the same quantum state, since they can not be distinguished using any operations or measurements.



            Thus, the eigenstates for hω are




            • $|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(|0rangle + |1rangle)$,


            • $-|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(-|0rangle -|1rangle)$,


            • $i|+rangle = frac1sqrt2(i|0rangle + i|1rangle)$

            • and any other state you can obtain from $|+rangle$ by multiplying it by a complex number and normalizing it.

            The convention is usually to pick coefficients so that the state has a real positive number as the first coefficient.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 8 hours ago









            Mariia MykhailovaMariia Mykhailova

            3,1451 gold badge3 silver badges20 bronze badges




            3,1451 gold badge3 silver badges20 bronze badges














            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
              $endgroup$
              – QFTUNIverse
              8 hours ago
















            • $begingroup$
              Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
              $endgroup$
              – QFTUNIverse
              8 hours ago















            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
            $endgroup$
            – QFTUNIverse
            8 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Thank you very much. I hope other people on this site are as quick to respond as you!
            $endgroup$
            – QFTUNIverse
            8 hours ago













            0












            $begingroup$

            For your more general question in the title, the answer is yes. This is more of a lesson in linear algebra than in quantum computing. What you found out is that actually the set of eigenvectors of a matrix $A$ corresponding to a given eigenvalue $lambda$ forms a vector subspace of the space upon which $A$ acts, this is called the eigenspace of $lambda$, $E_lambda$. As a matter of fact, if $A v_1=lambda v_1$ and $Av_2=lambda v_2$, then $A(alpha v_1+v_2)=lambda(alpha v_1+v_2)$, hence if $v_1,v_2in E_lambda$ then $alpha v_1+v_2in E_lambda$ for all $alpha in mathbbC$.



            Now you might ask, are there even cases where there are two different vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in the same eigenspace? Well you found a trivial one, where the eigenspace is one dimensional, i.e.



            $$ E_pm1=mathrmspanleft(frac1sqrt2(|0ranglepm|1rangle)right)$$



            they're one dimensional vector spaces, as as you noticed you can multiply the vector by any constant and it stays an eigenvector, but consider the matrix



            $$ A=beginpmatrix
            0&1&0\1&0&0\0&0&1
            endpmatrix$$



            you still have the eigenvalue $1$, but now it's different as



            $$v_1=beginpmatrix1\1\0
            endpmatrixv_2=beginpmatrix0\0\1
            endpmatrix $$

            are two linearly independent eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue, meaning that in this case



            $$ E_1=mathrmspan(v_1,v_2)$$
            the eigenspace is two dimensional, all linear combination of these two is an eigenvector with eigenvalue one. In this case we say that the eigenvalue is degenerate, specifically twofold degenerate or with degeneracy 2.



            The most extreme example if of course the identity matrix, which has only one eigenvalue, $1$, and the eigenspace is the whole vector space.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



















              0












              $begingroup$

              For your more general question in the title, the answer is yes. This is more of a lesson in linear algebra than in quantum computing. What you found out is that actually the set of eigenvectors of a matrix $A$ corresponding to a given eigenvalue $lambda$ forms a vector subspace of the space upon which $A$ acts, this is called the eigenspace of $lambda$, $E_lambda$. As a matter of fact, if $A v_1=lambda v_1$ and $Av_2=lambda v_2$, then $A(alpha v_1+v_2)=lambda(alpha v_1+v_2)$, hence if $v_1,v_2in E_lambda$ then $alpha v_1+v_2in E_lambda$ for all $alpha in mathbbC$.



              Now you might ask, are there even cases where there are two different vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in the same eigenspace? Well you found a trivial one, where the eigenspace is one dimensional, i.e.



              $$ E_pm1=mathrmspanleft(frac1sqrt2(|0ranglepm|1rangle)right)$$



              they're one dimensional vector spaces, as as you noticed you can multiply the vector by any constant and it stays an eigenvector, but consider the matrix



              $$ A=beginpmatrix
              0&1&0\1&0&0\0&0&1
              endpmatrix$$



              you still have the eigenvalue $1$, but now it's different as



              $$v_1=beginpmatrix1\1\0
              endpmatrixv_2=beginpmatrix0\0\1
              endpmatrix $$

              are two linearly independent eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue, meaning that in this case



              $$ E_1=mathrmspan(v_1,v_2)$$
              the eigenspace is two dimensional, all linear combination of these two is an eigenvector with eigenvalue one. In this case we say that the eigenvalue is degenerate, specifically twofold degenerate or with degeneracy 2.



              The most extreme example if of course the identity matrix, which has only one eigenvalue, $1$, and the eigenspace is the whole vector space.






              share|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                For your more general question in the title, the answer is yes. This is more of a lesson in linear algebra than in quantum computing. What you found out is that actually the set of eigenvectors of a matrix $A$ corresponding to a given eigenvalue $lambda$ forms a vector subspace of the space upon which $A$ acts, this is called the eigenspace of $lambda$, $E_lambda$. As a matter of fact, if $A v_1=lambda v_1$ and $Av_2=lambda v_2$, then $A(alpha v_1+v_2)=lambda(alpha v_1+v_2)$, hence if $v_1,v_2in E_lambda$ then $alpha v_1+v_2in E_lambda$ for all $alpha in mathbbC$.



                Now you might ask, are there even cases where there are two different vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in the same eigenspace? Well you found a trivial one, where the eigenspace is one dimensional, i.e.



                $$ E_pm1=mathrmspanleft(frac1sqrt2(|0ranglepm|1rangle)right)$$



                they're one dimensional vector spaces, as as you noticed you can multiply the vector by any constant and it stays an eigenvector, but consider the matrix



                $$ A=beginpmatrix
                0&1&0\1&0&0\0&0&1
                endpmatrix$$



                you still have the eigenvalue $1$, but now it's different as



                $$v_1=beginpmatrix1\1\0
                endpmatrixv_2=beginpmatrix0\0\1
                endpmatrix $$

                are two linearly independent eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue, meaning that in this case



                $$ E_1=mathrmspan(v_1,v_2)$$
                the eigenspace is two dimensional, all linear combination of these two is an eigenvector with eigenvalue one. In this case we say that the eigenvalue is degenerate, specifically twofold degenerate or with degeneracy 2.



                The most extreme example if of course the identity matrix, which has only one eigenvalue, $1$, and the eigenspace is the whole vector space.






                share|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                For your more general question in the title, the answer is yes. This is more of a lesson in linear algebra than in quantum computing. What you found out is that actually the set of eigenvectors of a matrix $A$ corresponding to a given eigenvalue $lambda$ forms a vector subspace of the space upon which $A$ acts, this is called the eigenspace of $lambda$, $E_lambda$. As a matter of fact, if $A v_1=lambda v_1$ and $Av_2=lambda v_2$, then $A(alpha v_1+v_2)=lambda(alpha v_1+v_2)$, hence if $v_1,v_2in E_lambda$ then $alpha v_1+v_2in E_lambda$ for all $alpha in mathbbC$.



                Now you might ask, are there even cases where there are two different vectors $v_1$ and $v_2$ that are in the same eigenspace? Well you found a trivial one, where the eigenspace is one dimensional, i.e.



                $$ E_pm1=mathrmspanleft(frac1sqrt2(|0ranglepm|1rangle)right)$$



                they're one dimensional vector spaces, as as you noticed you can multiply the vector by any constant and it stays an eigenvector, but consider the matrix



                $$ A=beginpmatrix
                0&1&0\1&0&0\0&0&1
                endpmatrix$$



                you still have the eigenvalue $1$, but now it's different as



                $$v_1=beginpmatrix1\1\0
                endpmatrixv_2=beginpmatrix0\0\1
                endpmatrix $$

                are two linearly independent eigenvectors with the same eigenvalue, meaning that in this case



                $$ E_1=mathrmspan(v_1,v_2)$$
                the eigenspace is two dimensional, all linear combination of these two is an eigenvector with eigenvalue one. In this case we say that the eigenvalue is degenerate, specifically twofold degenerate or with degeneracy 2.



                The most extreme example if of course the identity matrix, which has only one eigenvalue, $1$, and the eigenspace is the whole vector space.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 4 hours ago









                user2723984user2723984

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                    Черчино Становништво Референце Спољашње везе Мени за навигацију46°09′29″ СГШ; 9°30′29″ ИГД / 46.15809° СГШ; 9.50814° ИГД / 46.15809; 9.5081446°09′29″ СГШ; 9°30′29″ ИГД / 46.15809° СГШ; 9.50814° ИГД / 46.15809; 9.508143179111„The GeoNames geographical database”„Istituto Nazionale di Statistica”Званични веб-сајтпроширитиуу