Finding the constrain of integralML-inequality for real integralsEvaluating the integral $int_0^infty fracsin x x ,mathrm dx = frac pi 2$?Proving the inequality of an integral applied to a sumFind values so that integral is a bounded operatorProblem in series expansionSolving the improper integral $1/(x^a+y^b)$Convergence of the integral: $I_alpha =int _0^infty left(frace^-alpha xsqrtxright):dx$definition of Fourier transform questionsHow to calculate $iint_D (x^2 + y^2) , dxdy$ with $D = (fracx2)^2 + (fracy3)^2 leq 1$?Integral transform with reciprocal complex exponential functions?permute double integral and limit

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Finding the constrain of integral


ML-inequality for real integralsEvaluating the integral $int_0^infty fracsin x x ,mathrm dx = frac pi 2$?Proving the inequality of an integral applied to a sumFind values so that integral is a bounded operatorProblem in series expansionSolving the improper integral $1/(x^a+y^b)$Convergence of the integral: $I_alpha =int _0^infty left(frace^-alpha xsqrtxright):dx$definition of Fourier transform questionsHow to calculate $iint_D (x^2 + y^2) , dxdy$ with $D = (fracx2)^2 + (fracy3)^2 leq 1$?Integral transform with reciprocal complex exponential functions?permute double integral and limit













2












$begingroup$


$ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



This is the expression:



$$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



What am I missing? Because it doesn't not make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    2












    $begingroup$


    $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



    I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



    When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



    This is the expression:



    $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



    What am I missing? Because it doesn't not make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      2












      2








      2


      1



      $begingroup$


      $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



      I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



      When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



      This is the expression:



      $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



      What am I missing? Because it doesn't not make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      $ f_n(x) = left(4x-x^2right)^n$



      I'm trying to prove that $int _0^4:f_n(x),dx < 4^n+1$



      When I'm doing a general integral to $n > 1$, I'm getting an expression that equals to zero when $X = 4$ or $X = 0$.



      This is the expression:



      $$fracleft(4x-x^2right)^n+1(4-2X)(n+1) $$



      What am I missing? Because it doesn't not make sense that every integral with $n > 1$ is equal to zero







      analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 8 hours ago









      Bernard

      127k743120




      127k743120










      asked 8 hours ago









      DanielDaniel

      111




      111




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          Hint:



          $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



          Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago



















          1












          $begingroup$

          You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



          Consider the case when n=2



          $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – agentnola
            8 hours ago










          • $begingroup$
            I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago











          • $begingroup$
            Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



          Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
          $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
          We make this look a bit prettier:
          $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



          We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
          $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
          We collect some terms:
          $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
          Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
          $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
          We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



          Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
          $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



          Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            4












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



            Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago
















            4












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



            Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago














            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



            Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Hint:



            $4x-x^2$ is a quadratic polynomial , with a negative leading coefficient. Furthermore, it vanishes for $x=0$ and $x=4$. Can you find it (absolute) maximum?



            Once you've found this maximum, you can use the mean value inequality for integrals.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 8 hours ago









            BernardBernard

            127k743120




            127k743120











            • $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago

















            • $begingroup$
              Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago
















            $begingroup$
            Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago





            $begingroup$
            Of course, you can estimate this by the maximum! very nice approach. I like this argument. This is probably how the question was meant to be done ^^
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago












            1












            $begingroup$

            You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



            Consider the case when n=2



            $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              8 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago















            1












            $begingroup$

            You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



            Consider the case when n=2



            $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              8 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago













            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



            Consider the case when n=2



            $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            You cannot just blindly apply the reverse power rule. Remember the chain rule? You have a function within another function.



            Consider the case when n=2



            $ int_0^4 (4x + x^2)^2 dx = int_0^4 16x^2 + 8x^3 + x^4 dx$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 8 hours ago









            agentnolaagentnola

            389




            389











            • $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              8 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago
















            • $begingroup$
              Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
              $endgroup$
              – agentnola
              8 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago











            • $begingroup$
              Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
              $endgroup$
              – Wesley Strik
              8 hours ago















            $begingroup$
            Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Would it be better for him to use the binomial expansion, you think?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – agentnola
            8 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            That would be an excellent approach. I was also thinking that you could attempt to find a pattern and then use induction to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – agentnola
            8 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago





            $begingroup$
            I started working out the binomial theorem approach, you can switch the order of integration and summation and then integrate the power of $x$, this should not be too hard, although it will get a bit messy: $$int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago













            $begingroup$
            Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Now reduce everything to some power of $x$, move the integral inside and then we hope to get something pretty?
            $endgroup$
            – Wesley Strik
            8 hours ago











            0












            $begingroup$

            Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



            Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
            $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
            We make this look a bit prettier:
            $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



            We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
            $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
            We collect some terms:
            $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
            Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
            $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
            We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



            Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
            $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



            Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



              Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
              $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
              We make this look a bit prettier:
              $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



              We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
              $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
              We collect some terms:
              $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
              Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
              $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
              We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



              Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
              $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



              Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



                Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
                $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
                We make this look a bit prettier:
                $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



                We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
                We collect some terms:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
                Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
                $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
                We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



                Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
                $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



                Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Below is a suggestion for a very tedious route, but I wanted to post it anyway. This is probably not how the question is meant to be done.



                Observe how by the binomial theorem we have that:
                $$I=int _x=0^4:f_n(x),dx =int _x=0^4: (4x-x^2 )^n,dx =int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk (4x)^k cdot (-x^2)^n-k,dx$$
                We make this look a bit prettier:
                $$I=int _x=0^4: sum_k=0^n binomnk 4^k cdot (-1)^n-kx^2n-k,dx$$



                We may switch the order of integration and summation since this concerns polynomials (what I mean is that they are of finite order), we compute:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^k cdot (-1)^n-k4^2n-k+1-0$$
                We collect some terms:
                $$I=sum_k=0^n binomnk frac12n-k+1 4^2n+1 cdot (-1)^n-k$$
                Using combinatorial formulae and some help from Wolfram Alpha, this can be exactly computed to be:
                $$ I =fracsqrt pi cdot n! cdot 2^2n+1(n+frac12)!=fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! cdot 4^n + frac12$$
                We then need to prove by induction that $fracsqrt pi cdot n!(n+frac12)! > sqrt4$ for positive $n$.



                Yes. This is a lot of hard work. You could also just take the approach that was posted by Bernard and observe that $4x-x^2$ has a global maximum on the interval $[0,4]$ (the begin and endpoint are zeros of this polynomial), this maximum by symmetry occurs at $x=2$. The function has maximum value $8-4=4$. Observe then by the estimation lemma that $M =max_x in [0,4]((4x-x^2)^n)=4^n$, and the length of our path is $4$. We get:
                $$ int _x=0^4 f_n dx leq M L = 4^n cdot 4 = 4^n+1 $$



                Also see: ML-inequality for real integrals







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 8 hours ago









                Wesley StrikWesley Strik

                2,310424




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