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Could a guilty Boris Johnson be used to cancel Brexit?
“False advertising” in political campaigns?Could the Queen have stopped Brexit?Could the devolved UK administrations legislate directly for Brexit?Why do the Tories keep Boris Johnson around?What are the main differences between UK and US (NEP) exit polls, methodologically?Why do UK citizens feel “that only the British (and perhaps the Swiss) are properly democratic”?Could the UK unilaterally “restart the clock” on Brexit?Why did the UK not have any post-EU exit deals agreed prior to June 2016?Could Sinn Fein swing any Brexit vote in Parliament?Can the Queen still cancel Brexit?
This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.
Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.
united-kingdom brexit
add a comment |
This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.
Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.
united-kingdom brexit
2
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
2
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago
add a comment |
This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.
Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.
united-kingdom brexit
This question is based on the assumption that Boris Johnson gets prosecuted and found guilty of misleading public during the EU referendum.
Could this be used in court to argue that the results of the referendum is wrong and based on misleading campaigning, and therefore get a court decision to force the government to revoke Article 50.
united-kingdom brexit
united-kingdom brexit
asked 8 hours ago
MocasMocas
786718
786718
2
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
2
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago
add a comment |
2
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
2
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago
2
2
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
2
2
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.
Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.
Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
add a comment |
No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.
Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
add a comment |
No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.
Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.
No. The referendum was legally not binding, it just caused a political situation which made the article 50 notification seem a political necessity. The UK could have stayed or left regardless of the referendum result, so a court could not conclude from campaign "violations" that the notification was invalid.
Also, many election campaigns contain predictions or promises that may or may not become fact, and courts involved into that is a very bad thing for democracy. It is for the electorate to judge the credibility of campaign speeches, as long as they don't sink to libel and similar offenses.
answered 8 hours ago
o.m.o.m.
14.3k22959
14.3k22959
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
add a comment |
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
2
2
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
The court case in question isn't about a prediction or promise.The application says "the (proposed) defendant repeatedly lied and misled the British public as to the cost of EU membership, expressly stating, endorsing or inferring that the cost of EU membership was £350 million per week" judiciary.uk/judgments/…
– Lag
5 hours ago
add a comment |
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2
This question actually illustrates the can of worms this sort of thing opens up. If the idiots succeed we can ultimately look forward to courts appointing MPs.
– Orangesandlemons
5 hours ago
2
@Orangesandlemons great point. If we're going to start criminally convicting politicians of lying, then pretty soon we're not going to have any politicians left! ;-)
– Time4Tea
3 hours ago