Can a non-invertible function be inverted by returning a set of all possible solutions?How should I understand $f^-1(E):=xin A:f(x)in E$?Show that each composite function $f_i circ f_j$ is one of the given functionsThe inverse function of f(x)=ln(x)/x.Find the derivative of $f^-1(x)$ at $x=2$ if $f(x)=x^2 + x + ln x$Inverse function of $x + x^q$ with rational $q$“Class” of functions whose inverse, where defined, is the same “class”Inverse derivative of a functionFinding inverse function of a function with multiple variableTerm for a function that handles all possible inputs?How to show $12^a cdot 18^b$ is injective

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Can a non-invertible function be inverted by returning a set of all possible solutions?


How should I understand $f^-1(E):=xin A:f(x)in E$?Show that each composite function $f_i circ f_j$ is one of the given functionsThe inverse function of f(x)=ln(x)/x.Find the derivative of $f^-1(x)$ at $x=2$ if $f(x)=x^2 + x + ln x$Inverse function of $x + x^q$ with rational $q$“Class” of functions whose inverse, where defined, is the same “class”Inverse derivative of a functionFinding inverse function of a function with multiple variableTerm for a function that handles all possible inputs?How to show $12^a cdot 18^b$ is injective













2












$begingroup$


Is there a concept of inverting a non-invertible function by returning a set of the possible solutions?



For example:



$g(x) = x^2$



Would it be possible to create an inverse function $f(y)$ where, for example:



$f(4) = -2,2$



(I'm pretty sure I'm going about this wrong, but I'm still learning so I don't know *how* I'm wrong)










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander Geldhof
    9 hours ago
















2












$begingroup$


Is there a concept of inverting a non-invertible function by returning a set of the possible solutions?



For example:



$g(x) = x^2$



Would it be possible to create an inverse function $f(y)$ where, for example:



$f(4) = -2,2$



(I'm pretty sure I'm going about this wrong, but I'm still learning so I don't know *how* I'm wrong)










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$







  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander Geldhof
    9 hours ago














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Is there a concept of inverting a non-invertible function by returning a set of the possible solutions?



For example:



$g(x) = x^2$



Would it be possible to create an inverse function $f(y)$ where, for example:



$f(4) = -2,2$



(I'm pretty sure I'm going about this wrong, but I'm still learning so I don't know *how* I'm wrong)










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$




Is there a concept of inverting a non-invertible function by returning a set of the possible solutions?



For example:



$g(x) = x^2$



Would it be possible to create an inverse function $f(y)$ where, for example:



$f(4) = -2,2$



(I'm pretty sure I'm going about this wrong, but I'm still learning so I don't know *how* I'm wrong)







functions inverse-function






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 7 hours ago









Asaf Karagila

312k33446780




312k33446780






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asked 9 hours ago









Code SlingerCode Slinger

1164




1164




New contributor



Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor




Code Slinger is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander Geldhof
    9 hours ago













  • 3




    $begingroup$
    If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander Geldhof
    9 hours ago








3




3




$begingroup$
If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
$endgroup$
– Alexander Geldhof
9 hours ago





$begingroup$
If you define $f$ as a function from $mathbbR$ to the $textitpower set$ of $mathbbR$, then yes, that would be a function. However, $g circ f$ does not equal the identity anymore, which is a property you'd want/expect from an inverse.
$endgroup$
– Alexander Geldhof
9 hours ago











5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

This is a multivalued function (see especially the first example!), or multifunction, or set-valued function. A set-valued map, taking elements of $X$ and producing subsets of $Y$, is often denoted $f : X rightrightarrows Y$.



It can also be denoted more literally by $f : X to 2^Y$, as such maps can be thought of as (ordinary, single-valued) functions from $X$ to the power set of $Y$.



Finally, one could also view them simply as relations with a full domain.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Code Slinger
    5 hours ago


















4












$begingroup$

It is common to use the notation $f^-1(A)$, where $A$ is a subset of the value range of $f$, as a shorthand to describe the set $x : f(x) in A $. Furthermore, if $A$ is a set with only one value $x$ it is also somewhat common to just write $f^-1(x)$ instead of $f^-1(x)$. So if in your case the context is clear, it is fine to write $g^-1(4) = 2, -2$.



Also there are functions that are multivalued by default like the complex logarithm for example.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
    $endgroup$
    – Code Slinger
    5 hours ago


















0












$begingroup$

It is possible to have a set-valued function just like your $f$. The only 'but' is that it is not a function $f: mathbb Rto mathbb R$ but actually $f:mathbb Rtomathcal P(mathbb R)$, i.e. its target is the set of parts (or power set) of $mathbb R$.



What you are actually describing by your $f$ is the level sets of $g$. Any more I would add is contained in @LionCoder's comment, so I invite you to continue reading his input instead of repeating what they have said.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




















    0












    $begingroup$

    To give a function is the same to give the sets where the function is constant: $cmapsto f^-1(c)$. This would be a map $F:mathbbRto power(mathbbR)$. The function $F$ is almost injective (since $f^-1(c)cap f^-1(c')=emptyset$ for $cneq c'$). It might not be injective if $f^-1(c)=f^-1(c')=emptyset$, that is, if $c$ and $c'$ are not in the range of $f$. The result is:



    $$F: Image(f)to power(mathbbR)$$



    is injective.



    This map can never be surjective (by cardinality), so this is the best we can say. If you restrict an injective function to its image, then it becomes bijective.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      -1












      $begingroup$

      We usually want functions to only take one value in value space.



      If there are several different possible ones, we call them branches of a function.



      For example $f^-1(t) = -sqrtt$ is one such branch that is inverse to $f(t) = t^2$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













        Your Answer








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        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes








        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        4












        $begingroup$

        This is a multivalued function (see especially the first example!), or multifunction, or set-valued function. A set-valued map, taking elements of $X$ and producing subsets of $Y$, is often denoted $f : X rightrightarrows Y$.



        It can also be denoted more literally by $f : X to 2^Y$, as such maps can be thought of as (ordinary, single-valued) functions from $X$ to the power set of $Y$.



        Finally, one could also view them simply as relations with a full domain.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago















        4












        $begingroup$

        This is a multivalued function (see especially the first example!), or multifunction, or set-valued function. A set-valued map, taking elements of $X$ and producing subsets of $Y$, is often denoted $f : X rightrightarrows Y$.



        It can also be denoted more literally by $f : X to 2^Y$, as such maps can be thought of as (ordinary, single-valued) functions from $X$ to the power set of $Y$.



        Finally, one could also view them simply as relations with a full domain.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago













        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        This is a multivalued function (see especially the first example!), or multifunction, or set-valued function. A set-valued map, taking elements of $X$ and producing subsets of $Y$, is often denoted $f : X rightrightarrows Y$.



        It can also be denoted more literally by $f : X to 2^Y$, as such maps can be thought of as (ordinary, single-valued) functions from $X$ to the power set of $Y$.



        Finally, one could also view them simply as relations with a full domain.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        This is a multivalued function (see especially the first example!), or multifunction, or set-valued function. A set-valued map, taking elements of $X$ and producing subsets of $Y$, is often denoted $f : X rightrightarrows Y$.



        It can also be denoted more literally by $f : X to 2^Y$, as such maps can be thought of as (ordinary, single-valued) functions from $X$ to the power set of $Y$.



        Finally, one could also view them simply as relations with a full domain.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 9 hours ago

























        answered 9 hours ago









        Theo BenditTheo Bendit

        23.6k12359




        23.6k12359











        • $begingroup$
          Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago
















        • $begingroup$
          Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago















        $begingroup$
        Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Code Slinger
        5 hours ago




        $begingroup$
        Multivalued functions were the missing piece - thanks!
        $endgroup$
        – Code Slinger
        5 hours ago











        4












        $begingroup$

        It is common to use the notation $f^-1(A)$, where $A$ is a subset of the value range of $f$, as a shorthand to describe the set $x : f(x) in A $. Furthermore, if $A$ is a set with only one value $x$ it is also somewhat common to just write $f^-1(x)$ instead of $f^-1(x)$. So if in your case the context is clear, it is fine to write $g^-1(4) = 2, -2$.



        Also there are functions that are multivalued by default like the complex logarithm for example.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago















        4












        $begingroup$

        It is common to use the notation $f^-1(A)$, where $A$ is a subset of the value range of $f$, as a shorthand to describe the set $x : f(x) in A $. Furthermore, if $A$ is a set with only one value $x$ it is also somewhat common to just write $f^-1(x)$ instead of $f^-1(x)$. So if in your case the context is clear, it is fine to write $g^-1(4) = 2, -2$.



        Also there are functions that are multivalued by default like the complex logarithm for example.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago













        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        It is common to use the notation $f^-1(A)$, where $A$ is a subset of the value range of $f$, as a shorthand to describe the set $x : f(x) in A $. Furthermore, if $A$ is a set with only one value $x$ it is also somewhat common to just write $f^-1(x)$ instead of $f^-1(x)$. So if in your case the context is clear, it is fine to write $g^-1(4) = 2, -2$.



        Also there are functions that are multivalued by default like the complex logarithm for example.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        It is common to use the notation $f^-1(A)$, where $A$ is a subset of the value range of $f$, as a shorthand to describe the set $x : f(x) in A $. Furthermore, if $A$ is a set with only one value $x$ it is also somewhat common to just write $f^-1(x)$ instead of $f^-1(x)$. So if in your case the context is clear, it is fine to write $g^-1(4) = 2, -2$.



        Also there are functions that are multivalued by default like the complex logarithm for example.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 9 hours ago









        LionCoderLionCoder

        677315




        677315











        • $begingroup$
          So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago
















        • $begingroup$
          So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
          $endgroup$
          – Code Slinger
          5 hours ago















        $begingroup$
        So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
        $endgroup$
        – Code Slinger
        5 hours ago




        $begingroup$
        So $g^-1(4)$ could be the same as $g^-1(4)$ in a certain context? Would that make $g^-1$ a multivalued function?
        $endgroup$
        – Code Slinger
        5 hours ago











        0












        $begingroup$

        It is possible to have a set-valued function just like your $f$. The only 'but' is that it is not a function $f: mathbb Rto mathbb R$ but actually $f:mathbb Rtomathcal P(mathbb R)$, i.e. its target is the set of parts (or power set) of $mathbb R$.



        What you are actually describing by your $f$ is the level sets of $g$. Any more I would add is contained in @LionCoder's comment, so I invite you to continue reading his input instead of repeating what they have said.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$

















          0












          $begingroup$

          It is possible to have a set-valued function just like your $f$. The only 'but' is that it is not a function $f: mathbb Rto mathbb R$ but actually $f:mathbb Rtomathcal P(mathbb R)$, i.e. its target is the set of parts (or power set) of $mathbb R$.



          What you are actually describing by your $f$ is the level sets of $g$. Any more I would add is contained in @LionCoder's comment, so I invite you to continue reading his input instead of repeating what they have said.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            It is possible to have a set-valued function just like your $f$. The only 'but' is that it is not a function $f: mathbb Rto mathbb R$ but actually $f:mathbb Rtomathcal P(mathbb R)$, i.e. its target is the set of parts (or power set) of $mathbb R$.



            What you are actually describing by your $f$ is the level sets of $g$. Any more I would add is contained in @LionCoder's comment, so I invite you to continue reading his input instead of repeating what they have said.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            It is possible to have a set-valued function just like your $f$. The only 'but' is that it is not a function $f: mathbb Rto mathbb R$ but actually $f:mathbb Rtomathcal P(mathbb R)$, i.e. its target is the set of parts (or power set) of $mathbb R$.



            What you are actually describing by your $f$ is the level sets of $g$. Any more I would add is contained in @LionCoder's comment, so I invite you to continue reading his input instead of repeating what they have said.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 9 hours ago









            Sam SkywalkerSam Skywalker

            54913




            54913





















                0












                $begingroup$

                To give a function is the same to give the sets where the function is constant: $cmapsto f^-1(c)$. This would be a map $F:mathbbRto power(mathbbR)$. The function $F$ is almost injective (since $f^-1(c)cap f^-1(c')=emptyset$ for $cneq c'$). It might not be injective if $f^-1(c)=f^-1(c')=emptyset$, that is, if $c$ and $c'$ are not in the range of $f$. The result is:



                $$F: Image(f)to power(mathbbR)$$



                is injective.



                This map can never be surjective (by cardinality), so this is the best we can say. If you restrict an injective function to its image, then it becomes bijective.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  To give a function is the same to give the sets where the function is constant: $cmapsto f^-1(c)$. This would be a map $F:mathbbRto power(mathbbR)$. The function $F$ is almost injective (since $f^-1(c)cap f^-1(c')=emptyset$ for $cneq c'$). It might not be injective if $f^-1(c)=f^-1(c')=emptyset$, that is, if $c$ and $c'$ are not in the range of $f$. The result is:



                  $$F: Image(f)to power(mathbbR)$$



                  is injective.



                  This map can never be surjective (by cardinality), so this is the best we can say. If you restrict an injective function to its image, then it becomes bijective.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    To give a function is the same to give the sets where the function is constant: $cmapsto f^-1(c)$. This would be a map $F:mathbbRto power(mathbbR)$. The function $F$ is almost injective (since $f^-1(c)cap f^-1(c')=emptyset$ for $cneq c'$). It might not be injective if $f^-1(c)=f^-1(c')=emptyset$, that is, if $c$ and $c'$ are not in the range of $f$. The result is:



                    $$F: Image(f)to power(mathbbR)$$



                    is injective.



                    This map can never be surjective (by cardinality), so this is the best we can say. If you restrict an injective function to its image, then it becomes bijective.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    To give a function is the same to give the sets where the function is constant: $cmapsto f^-1(c)$. This would be a map $F:mathbbRto power(mathbbR)$. The function $F$ is almost injective (since $f^-1(c)cap f^-1(c')=emptyset$ for $cneq c'$). It might not be injective if $f^-1(c)=f^-1(c')=emptyset$, that is, if $c$ and $c'$ are not in the range of $f$. The result is:



                    $$F: Image(f)to power(mathbbR)$$



                    is injective.



                    This map can never be surjective (by cardinality), so this is the best we can say. If you restrict an injective function to its image, then it becomes bijective.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 9 hours ago









                    Hudson LimaHudson Lima

                    664




                    664





















                        -1












                        $begingroup$

                        We usually want functions to only take one value in value space.



                        If there are several different possible ones, we call them branches of a function.



                        For example $f^-1(t) = -sqrtt$ is one such branch that is inverse to $f(t) = t^2$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$

















                          -1












                          $begingroup$

                          We usually want functions to only take one value in value space.



                          If there are several different possible ones, we call them branches of a function.



                          For example $f^-1(t) = -sqrtt$ is one such branch that is inverse to $f(t) = t^2$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$















                            -1












                            -1








                            -1





                            $begingroup$

                            We usually want functions to only take one value in value space.



                            If there are several different possible ones, we call them branches of a function.



                            For example $f^-1(t) = -sqrtt$ is one such branch that is inverse to $f(t) = t^2$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            We usually want functions to only take one value in value space.



                            If there are several different possible ones, we call them branches of a function.



                            For example $f^-1(t) = -sqrtt$ is one such branch that is inverse to $f(t) = t^2$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 9 hours ago









                            mathreadlermathreadler

                            16k72263




                            16k72263




















                                Code Slinger is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









                                draft saved

                                draft discarded


















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