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How far can gerrymandering go?


How come Gerrymandering is still legal?Can an 11% minority actually pass a Constitutional amendment?What is gerrymandering?How does gerrymandering work in the US?Who can, in the US, challenge the registration of a voter?Have Republicans ever complained about gerrymandering in the United States?Does gerrymandering risk tidal wave reversal?Trump's recent siding with the democrats on 3 months debt extension - trying to understand a few thingsis Gerrymandering unconstitutional?Does this concept solve gerrymandering?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








4















Gerrymandering can keep a relatively unpopular party in power for longer than it otherwise would be. Assuming the unpopular party becomes even more unpopular, just how unpopular would they need to be before the stratagem of gerrymandering itself is insufficient to support them?



For example, in 2016 gerrymandering enabled Republican candidates who received 50% of the popular vote to win 9 out of 12 available Congressional seats in North Carolina. That is, half the votes, but 3/4 of the seats and power. And suppose that as long as they hold 3/4 of the power, they'll continue to gerrymander.



Now suppose in the future, the Republicans become more unpopular, and receive only 25% or 10% or even 1% of the North Carolina vote, can gerrymandering alone sustain their hold on the majority of seats, or is there some necessary numeric limit that would eventually be reached?




Note: for the purposes of this question, please ignore other concomitant strategems by which unpopular parties might squeak by.










share|improve this question
























  • It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

    – Trilarion
    9 hours ago












  • In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago











  • It's going to depend on the number of districts.

    – lazarusL
    9 hours ago











  • It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago






  • 1





    @Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

    – agc
    9 hours ago


















4















Gerrymandering can keep a relatively unpopular party in power for longer than it otherwise would be. Assuming the unpopular party becomes even more unpopular, just how unpopular would they need to be before the stratagem of gerrymandering itself is insufficient to support them?



For example, in 2016 gerrymandering enabled Republican candidates who received 50% of the popular vote to win 9 out of 12 available Congressional seats in North Carolina. That is, half the votes, but 3/4 of the seats and power. And suppose that as long as they hold 3/4 of the power, they'll continue to gerrymander.



Now suppose in the future, the Republicans become more unpopular, and receive only 25% or 10% or even 1% of the North Carolina vote, can gerrymandering alone sustain their hold on the majority of seats, or is there some necessary numeric limit that would eventually be reached?




Note: for the purposes of this question, please ignore other concomitant strategems by which unpopular parties might squeak by.










share|improve this question
























  • It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

    – Trilarion
    9 hours ago












  • In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago











  • It's going to depend on the number of districts.

    – lazarusL
    9 hours ago











  • It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago






  • 1





    @Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

    – agc
    9 hours ago














4












4








4








Gerrymandering can keep a relatively unpopular party in power for longer than it otherwise would be. Assuming the unpopular party becomes even more unpopular, just how unpopular would they need to be before the stratagem of gerrymandering itself is insufficient to support them?



For example, in 2016 gerrymandering enabled Republican candidates who received 50% of the popular vote to win 9 out of 12 available Congressional seats in North Carolina. That is, half the votes, but 3/4 of the seats and power. And suppose that as long as they hold 3/4 of the power, they'll continue to gerrymander.



Now suppose in the future, the Republicans become more unpopular, and receive only 25% or 10% or even 1% of the North Carolina vote, can gerrymandering alone sustain their hold on the majority of seats, or is there some necessary numeric limit that would eventually be reached?




Note: for the purposes of this question, please ignore other concomitant strategems by which unpopular parties might squeak by.










share|improve this question
















Gerrymandering can keep a relatively unpopular party in power for longer than it otherwise would be. Assuming the unpopular party becomes even more unpopular, just how unpopular would they need to be before the stratagem of gerrymandering itself is insufficient to support them?



For example, in 2016 gerrymandering enabled Republican candidates who received 50% of the popular vote to win 9 out of 12 available Congressional seats in North Carolina. That is, half the votes, but 3/4 of the seats and power. And suppose that as long as they hold 3/4 of the power, they'll continue to gerrymander.



Now suppose in the future, the Republicans become more unpopular, and receive only 25% or 10% or even 1% of the North Carolina vote, can gerrymandering alone sustain their hold on the majority of seats, or is there some necessary numeric limit that would eventually be reached?




Note: for the purposes of this question, please ignore other concomitant strategems by which unpopular parties might squeak by.







united-states parties gerrymandering voting-districts






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago









Brythan

75.5k8 gold badges163 silver badges257 bronze badges




75.5k8 gold badges163 silver badges257 bronze badges










asked 9 hours ago









agcagc

6,05317 silver badges54 bronze badges




6,05317 silver badges54 bronze badges












  • It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

    – Trilarion
    9 hours ago












  • In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago











  • It's going to depend on the number of districts.

    – lazarusL
    9 hours ago











  • It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago






  • 1





    @Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

    – agc
    9 hours ago


















  • It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

    – Trilarion
    9 hours ago












  • In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago











  • It's going to depend on the number of districts.

    – lazarusL
    9 hours ago











  • It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

    – Jasper
    9 hours ago






  • 1





    @Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

    – agc
    9 hours ago

















It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

– Trilarion
9 hours ago






It depends on how inhomogeneous voters of the partys are distributed and how crazy you can draw the electoral maps. But the effect can be quite large.

– Trilarion
9 hours ago














In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

– Jasper
9 hours ago





In the United States, Congressmen do not perform gerrymandering. In most states that have gerrymandered districts, it is the state legislature the determines the districts.

– Jasper
9 hours ago













It's going to depend on the number of districts.

– lazarusL
9 hours ago





It's going to depend on the number of districts.

– lazarusL
9 hours ago













It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

– Jasper
9 hours ago





It also depends on the voting rates of various populations. In California, some heavily Hispanic districts have half the voter turnout of typical districts. This is one of the reasons that the Trump administration wants to ask about citizenship during the 2020 census.

– Jasper
9 hours ago




1




1





@Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

– agc
9 hours ago






@Jasper, Re " it is the state legislature that determines...": True, but Republicans also hold majorities in the NC state legislature. Anyway it's just an example; the Q. is about gerrymandering in the abstract rather than NC in particular.

– agc
9 hours ago











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















6














This is a rather simple mathematical exercise. If you allow me total freedom to draw districts within the current requirements, I can place anyone in any district I want provided they have equal population in the end. Connectedness in two dimensions is not enough of a barrier to stop this. In that case, my best bet is to fill as many districts as possible with 50%+1 of my supporters, and fill in the rest with my opponents. Since at least half the population of each district I win must consist of my supporters, we can easily see there is an upper limit on how many districts I can win:




A party with x% of the vote cannot win more than 2x% of the districts no matter how they are drawn.




In practice there's no way I can reach this limit--no court in the land would allow me to draw the kind of tortured districts needed for arbitrary assignment. 50%+1 is also nowhere close to safe--I'd need a small buffer in my districts so that changing demographics and opinions don't turn it into a gerrymander against me. I'd guess that overall this limits one's practical chances to 1.5x%, but this just an estimate, not a mathematical truth.






share|improve this answer

























  • If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago











  • So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

    – agc
    2 hours ago












  • @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

    – eyeballfrog
    1 hour ago



















2














In theory, if the stars align perfectly, one can gerrymander a 50-50 vote to win 11 out of 12 districts. This can be done by drawing the district boundaries so that one district has 61% of voters supporting your opponents, and the other 11 have only 49% supporting your opponents.



In practice, it will come down to how tightly packed, geographically, your opponents are. If they are evenly spread, then it becomes much more difficult than if they are densely packed in a few geographic areas. Thanks to a combination of voter registrations (where the state knows voter affiliations in each house), and cheaper computing power allowing for more complex modelling, a willing party can find a way to optimise the boundaries for their benefit.






share|improve this answer























  • This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago


















2














The problem here is that "one person one vote" can be based on residents rather than citizens or voters. So if you could assign people purely arbitrarily, you could fill up your districts with non-voters such that only a small number of voters are required. In theory, one voter and eight hundred thousand non-voters per district would work. Pack all the other side's actual voters into one district (no non-voters and none of your voters).



However, you then run into a few problems.



  1. It's not the number of federal House seats that determines your ability to gerrymander. It's the number of state legislative seats. So you need more than just twelve federal seats. You need a larger number of state seats.

  2. You can't gerrymander statewide races. So to make this work, you have to disempower the governor's ability to veto a districting plan.

  3. Most states don't have enough non-voters to make this work.

  4. You can't actually assign people arbitrarily per district.

Realistically, this would never work. But it is theoretically possible with just a few hundred voters given sufficient non-voters.



In actuality, Republicans in North Carolina received slightly more votes than Democrats. But instead of winning seven to six, they won ten to three in North Carolina. But this didn't overcome the Democratic gerrymander in California, where Republicans won about 33% of the vote but only 11% of the seats. That's a surplus of twelve for the Democrats. Even netting out the three for the Republicans from North Carolina, that's still an advantage of nine seats for the Democrats from those two states.



Apparently in the last House election, the gerrymanders almost exactly cancelled out. The Democrats won about as many House seats (54%) as their share of the vote (53.4%). Which is surprising because Democrats face a natural handicap in that their voters are more concentrated than Republican voters.



Source: Wikipedia from Johnson, Cheryl L. (February 28, 2019). "Statistics of the Congressional Election of November 6, 2018". Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives.






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    6














    This is a rather simple mathematical exercise. If you allow me total freedom to draw districts within the current requirements, I can place anyone in any district I want provided they have equal population in the end. Connectedness in two dimensions is not enough of a barrier to stop this. In that case, my best bet is to fill as many districts as possible with 50%+1 of my supporters, and fill in the rest with my opponents. Since at least half the population of each district I win must consist of my supporters, we can easily see there is an upper limit on how many districts I can win:




    A party with x% of the vote cannot win more than 2x% of the districts no matter how they are drawn.




    In practice there's no way I can reach this limit--no court in the land would allow me to draw the kind of tortured districts needed for arbitrary assignment. 50%+1 is also nowhere close to safe--I'd need a small buffer in my districts so that changing demographics and opinions don't turn it into a gerrymander against me. I'd guess that overall this limits one's practical chances to 1.5x%, but this just an estimate, not a mathematical truth.






    share|improve this answer

























    • If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago











    • So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

      – agc
      2 hours ago












    • @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

      – eyeballfrog
      1 hour ago
















    6














    This is a rather simple mathematical exercise. If you allow me total freedom to draw districts within the current requirements, I can place anyone in any district I want provided they have equal population in the end. Connectedness in two dimensions is not enough of a barrier to stop this. In that case, my best bet is to fill as many districts as possible with 50%+1 of my supporters, and fill in the rest with my opponents. Since at least half the population of each district I win must consist of my supporters, we can easily see there is an upper limit on how many districts I can win:




    A party with x% of the vote cannot win more than 2x% of the districts no matter how they are drawn.




    In practice there's no way I can reach this limit--no court in the land would allow me to draw the kind of tortured districts needed for arbitrary assignment. 50%+1 is also nowhere close to safe--I'd need a small buffer in my districts so that changing demographics and opinions don't turn it into a gerrymander against me. I'd guess that overall this limits one's practical chances to 1.5x%, but this just an estimate, not a mathematical truth.






    share|improve this answer

























    • If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago











    • So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

      – agc
      2 hours ago












    • @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

      – eyeballfrog
      1 hour ago














    6












    6








    6







    This is a rather simple mathematical exercise. If you allow me total freedom to draw districts within the current requirements, I can place anyone in any district I want provided they have equal population in the end. Connectedness in two dimensions is not enough of a barrier to stop this. In that case, my best bet is to fill as many districts as possible with 50%+1 of my supporters, and fill in the rest with my opponents. Since at least half the population of each district I win must consist of my supporters, we can easily see there is an upper limit on how many districts I can win:




    A party with x% of the vote cannot win more than 2x% of the districts no matter how they are drawn.




    In practice there's no way I can reach this limit--no court in the land would allow me to draw the kind of tortured districts needed for arbitrary assignment. 50%+1 is also nowhere close to safe--I'd need a small buffer in my districts so that changing demographics and opinions don't turn it into a gerrymander against me. I'd guess that overall this limits one's practical chances to 1.5x%, but this just an estimate, not a mathematical truth.






    share|improve this answer















    This is a rather simple mathematical exercise. If you allow me total freedom to draw districts within the current requirements, I can place anyone in any district I want provided they have equal population in the end. Connectedness in two dimensions is not enough of a barrier to stop this. In that case, my best bet is to fill as many districts as possible with 50%+1 of my supporters, and fill in the rest with my opponents. Since at least half the population of each district I win must consist of my supporters, we can easily see there is an upper limit on how many districts I can win:




    A party with x% of the vote cannot win more than 2x% of the districts no matter how they are drawn.




    In practice there's no way I can reach this limit--no court in the land would allow me to draw the kind of tortured districts needed for arbitrary assignment. 50%+1 is also nowhere close to safe--I'd need a small buffer in my districts so that changing demographics and opinions don't turn it into a gerrymander against me. I'd guess that overall this limits one's practical chances to 1.5x%, but this just an estimate, not a mathematical truth.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 4 hours ago









    Brythan

    75.5k8 gold badges163 silver badges257 bronze badges




    75.5k8 gold badges163 silver badges257 bronze badges










    answered 7 hours ago









    eyeballfrogeyeballfrog

    6855 silver badges9 bronze badges




    6855 silver badges9 bronze badges












    • If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago











    • So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

      – agc
      2 hours ago












    • @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

      – eyeballfrog
      1 hour ago


















    • If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago











    • So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

      – agc
      2 hours ago












    • @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

      – eyeballfrog
      1 hour ago

















    If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago





    If there's an odd number of voters, you only need 50% plus 0.5. This is a plea to use the simpler and more accurate phrase "more than 50%" to describe a majority.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago













    So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

    – agc
    2 hours ago






    So if I understand this correctly, given only two parties, about 25.5% of voter support is the lower limit, below which gerrymandering would fail.

    – agc
    2 hours ago














    @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

    – eyeballfrog
    1 hour ago






    @agc 25% limit at which gerrymandering is mathematically impossible. I would expect it to fail long before then--certainly by 35%.

    – eyeballfrog
    1 hour ago














    2














    In theory, if the stars align perfectly, one can gerrymander a 50-50 vote to win 11 out of 12 districts. This can be done by drawing the district boundaries so that one district has 61% of voters supporting your opponents, and the other 11 have only 49% supporting your opponents.



    In practice, it will come down to how tightly packed, geographically, your opponents are. If they are evenly spread, then it becomes much more difficult than if they are densely packed in a few geographic areas. Thanks to a combination of voter registrations (where the state knows voter affiliations in each house), and cheaper computing power allowing for more complex modelling, a willing party can find a way to optimise the boundaries for their benefit.






    share|improve this answer























    • This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago















    2














    In theory, if the stars align perfectly, one can gerrymander a 50-50 vote to win 11 out of 12 districts. This can be done by drawing the district boundaries so that one district has 61% of voters supporting your opponents, and the other 11 have only 49% supporting your opponents.



    In practice, it will come down to how tightly packed, geographically, your opponents are. If they are evenly spread, then it becomes much more difficult than if they are densely packed in a few geographic areas. Thanks to a combination of voter registrations (where the state knows voter affiliations in each house), and cheaper computing power allowing for more complex modelling, a willing party can find a way to optimise the boundaries for their benefit.






    share|improve this answer























    • This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago













    2












    2








    2







    In theory, if the stars align perfectly, one can gerrymander a 50-50 vote to win 11 out of 12 districts. This can be done by drawing the district boundaries so that one district has 61% of voters supporting your opponents, and the other 11 have only 49% supporting your opponents.



    In practice, it will come down to how tightly packed, geographically, your opponents are. If they are evenly spread, then it becomes much more difficult than if they are densely packed in a few geographic areas. Thanks to a combination of voter registrations (where the state knows voter affiliations in each house), and cheaper computing power allowing for more complex modelling, a willing party can find a way to optimise the boundaries for their benefit.






    share|improve this answer













    In theory, if the stars align perfectly, one can gerrymander a 50-50 vote to win 11 out of 12 districts. This can be done by drawing the district boundaries so that one district has 61% of voters supporting your opponents, and the other 11 have only 49% supporting your opponents.



    In practice, it will come down to how tightly packed, geographically, your opponents are. If they are evenly spread, then it becomes much more difficult than if they are densely packed in a few geographic areas. Thanks to a combination of voter registrations (where the state knows voter affiliations in each house), and cheaper computing power allowing for more complex modelling, a willing party can find a way to optimise the boundaries for their benefit.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 8 hours ago









    Joe CJoe C

    4,83110 silver badges35 bronze badges




    4,83110 silver badges35 bronze badges












    • This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago

















    • This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago
















    This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago





    This example shows how a party with 40% of the vote in a 12-district state can engineer a majority in its congressional delegation, but it doesn't answer the question, which is asking for the smallest proportion of the vote a party could have while still being able to gerrymander a majority of congressional districts in its favor.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago











    2














    The problem here is that "one person one vote" can be based on residents rather than citizens or voters. So if you could assign people purely arbitrarily, you could fill up your districts with non-voters such that only a small number of voters are required. In theory, one voter and eight hundred thousand non-voters per district would work. Pack all the other side's actual voters into one district (no non-voters and none of your voters).



    However, you then run into a few problems.



    1. It's not the number of federal House seats that determines your ability to gerrymander. It's the number of state legislative seats. So you need more than just twelve federal seats. You need a larger number of state seats.

    2. You can't gerrymander statewide races. So to make this work, you have to disempower the governor's ability to veto a districting plan.

    3. Most states don't have enough non-voters to make this work.

    4. You can't actually assign people arbitrarily per district.

    Realistically, this would never work. But it is theoretically possible with just a few hundred voters given sufficient non-voters.



    In actuality, Republicans in North Carolina received slightly more votes than Democrats. But instead of winning seven to six, they won ten to three in North Carolina. But this didn't overcome the Democratic gerrymander in California, where Republicans won about 33% of the vote but only 11% of the seats. That's a surplus of twelve for the Democrats. Even netting out the three for the Republicans from North Carolina, that's still an advantage of nine seats for the Democrats from those two states.



    Apparently in the last House election, the gerrymanders almost exactly cancelled out. The Democrats won about as many House seats (54%) as their share of the vote (53.4%). Which is surprising because Democrats face a natural handicap in that their voters are more concentrated than Republican voters.



    Source: Wikipedia from Johnson, Cheryl L. (February 28, 2019). "Statistics of the Congressional Election of November 6, 2018". Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives.






    share|improve this answer



























      2














      The problem here is that "one person one vote" can be based on residents rather than citizens or voters. So if you could assign people purely arbitrarily, you could fill up your districts with non-voters such that only a small number of voters are required. In theory, one voter and eight hundred thousand non-voters per district would work. Pack all the other side's actual voters into one district (no non-voters and none of your voters).



      However, you then run into a few problems.



      1. It's not the number of federal House seats that determines your ability to gerrymander. It's the number of state legislative seats. So you need more than just twelve federal seats. You need a larger number of state seats.

      2. You can't gerrymander statewide races. So to make this work, you have to disempower the governor's ability to veto a districting plan.

      3. Most states don't have enough non-voters to make this work.

      4. You can't actually assign people arbitrarily per district.

      Realistically, this would never work. But it is theoretically possible with just a few hundred voters given sufficient non-voters.



      In actuality, Republicans in North Carolina received slightly more votes than Democrats. But instead of winning seven to six, they won ten to three in North Carolina. But this didn't overcome the Democratic gerrymander in California, where Republicans won about 33% of the vote but only 11% of the seats. That's a surplus of twelve for the Democrats. Even netting out the three for the Republicans from North Carolina, that's still an advantage of nine seats for the Democrats from those two states.



      Apparently in the last House election, the gerrymanders almost exactly cancelled out. The Democrats won about as many House seats (54%) as their share of the vote (53.4%). Which is surprising because Democrats face a natural handicap in that their voters are more concentrated than Republican voters.



      Source: Wikipedia from Johnson, Cheryl L. (February 28, 2019). "Statistics of the Congressional Election of November 6, 2018". Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives.






      share|improve this answer

























        2












        2








        2







        The problem here is that "one person one vote" can be based on residents rather than citizens or voters. So if you could assign people purely arbitrarily, you could fill up your districts with non-voters such that only a small number of voters are required. In theory, one voter and eight hundred thousand non-voters per district would work. Pack all the other side's actual voters into one district (no non-voters and none of your voters).



        However, you then run into a few problems.



        1. It's not the number of federal House seats that determines your ability to gerrymander. It's the number of state legislative seats. So you need more than just twelve federal seats. You need a larger number of state seats.

        2. You can't gerrymander statewide races. So to make this work, you have to disempower the governor's ability to veto a districting plan.

        3. Most states don't have enough non-voters to make this work.

        4. You can't actually assign people arbitrarily per district.

        Realistically, this would never work. But it is theoretically possible with just a few hundred voters given sufficient non-voters.



        In actuality, Republicans in North Carolina received slightly more votes than Democrats. But instead of winning seven to six, they won ten to three in North Carolina. But this didn't overcome the Democratic gerrymander in California, where Republicans won about 33% of the vote but only 11% of the seats. That's a surplus of twelve for the Democrats. Even netting out the three for the Republicans from North Carolina, that's still an advantage of nine seats for the Democrats from those two states.



        Apparently in the last House election, the gerrymanders almost exactly cancelled out. The Democrats won about as many House seats (54%) as their share of the vote (53.4%). Which is surprising because Democrats face a natural handicap in that their voters are more concentrated than Republican voters.



        Source: Wikipedia from Johnson, Cheryl L. (February 28, 2019). "Statistics of the Congressional Election of November 6, 2018". Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives.






        share|improve this answer













        The problem here is that "one person one vote" can be based on residents rather than citizens or voters. So if you could assign people purely arbitrarily, you could fill up your districts with non-voters such that only a small number of voters are required. In theory, one voter and eight hundred thousand non-voters per district would work. Pack all the other side's actual voters into one district (no non-voters and none of your voters).



        However, you then run into a few problems.



        1. It's not the number of federal House seats that determines your ability to gerrymander. It's the number of state legislative seats. So you need more than just twelve federal seats. You need a larger number of state seats.

        2. You can't gerrymander statewide races. So to make this work, you have to disempower the governor's ability to veto a districting plan.

        3. Most states don't have enough non-voters to make this work.

        4. You can't actually assign people arbitrarily per district.

        Realistically, this would never work. But it is theoretically possible with just a few hundred voters given sufficient non-voters.



        In actuality, Republicans in North Carolina received slightly more votes than Democrats. But instead of winning seven to six, they won ten to three in North Carolina. But this didn't overcome the Democratic gerrymander in California, where Republicans won about 33% of the vote but only 11% of the seats. That's a surplus of twelve for the Democrats. Even netting out the three for the Republicans from North Carolina, that's still an advantage of nine seats for the Democrats from those two states.



        Apparently in the last House election, the gerrymanders almost exactly cancelled out. The Democrats won about as many House seats (54%) as their share of the vote (53.4%). Which is surprising because Democrats face a natural handicap in that their voters are more concentrated than Republican voters.



        Source: Wikipedia from Johnson, Cheryl L. (February 28, 2019). "Statistics of the Congressional Election of November 6, 2018". Clerk of the U.S. House of Representatives.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



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        answered 4 hours ago









        BrythanBrythan

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