Let A,B,C be sets. If A△B=A△C, does this imply that B=C?Does an injective function imply two sets have same cardinality?Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are sets and that $f: A rightarrow B$ is onto. Does being onto guarantee the sets are finite?How to know which of these sets are equivalentwhat does “a set of sets that are not members of themselves” of Russell’s Paradox meanWhy does the well ordering principle imply induction.For a system of sets closed under union and complement, does there always exists a partition generating itWhat property of cycles can disprove this?Using set notation for sets with repeating charactersTrue or false? This relation is an equivalence relation: $xRy Leftrightarrow x cdot y$ is evenIf for some sets $A, B$ we have their symmetric difference $(A-B) cup (B-A) =B$. Then does that imply $A=emptyset$

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Let A,B,C be sets. If A△B=A△C, does this imply that B=C?


Does an injective function imply two sets have same cardinality?Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are sets and that $f: A rightarrow B$ is onto. Does being onto guarantee the sets are finite?How to know which of these sets are equivalentwhat does “a set of sets that are not members of themselves” of Russell’s Paradox meanWhy does the well ordering principle imply induction.For a system of sets closed under union and complement, does there always exists a partition generating itWhat property of cycles can disprove this?Using set notation for sets with repeating charactersTrue or false? This relation is an equivalence relation: $xRy Leftrightarrow x cdot y$ is evenIf for some sets $A, B$ we have their symmetric difference $(A-B) cup (B-A) =B$. Then does that imply $A=emptyset$






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2












$begingroup$


I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee Mosher
    9 hours ago

















2












$begingroup$


I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee Mosher
    9 hours ago













2












2








2





$begingroup$


I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.







discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory






share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 9 hours ago









Matt SchiffMatt Schiff

826 bronze badges




826 bronze badges










  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee Mosher
    9 hours ago












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    9 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
    $endgroup$
    – Lee Mosher
    9 hours ago







2




2




$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago




$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago










5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes


















5














$begingroup$

$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    9 hours ago


















1














$begingroup$

For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.



So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".



A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$






















    1














    $begingroup$

    Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.



    There are two cases:




    1. $xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction


    2. $xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.

    Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.




    Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.



    Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$






















      1














      $begingroup$

      For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
      noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
      where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).



      If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
      (Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)



      Using characteristic functions, we have
      $1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
      $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$














      • $begingroup$
        Corrected egregious mistake.
        $endgroup$
        – copper.hat
        9 hours ago


















      1














      $begingroup$

      I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
      $$
      x in A
      xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
      xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
      xrightarrowx in A x notin B
      ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
      $$

      $$
      x notin A
      xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
      xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
      xrightarrowx notin A x in C
      ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
      $$

      Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
      This completes the proof.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        5 Answers
        5






        active

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        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes









        5














        $begingroup$

        $Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
        $$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$














        • $begingroup$
          LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
          $endgroup$
          – Randall
          9 hours ago















        5














        $begingroup$

        $Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
        $$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$














        • $begingroup$
          LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
          $endgroup$
          – Randall
          9 hours ago













        5














        5










        5







        $begingroup$

        $Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
        $$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
        $$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 9 hours ago









        Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

        297k24 gold badges285 silver badges524 bronze badges




        297k24 gold badges285 silver badges524 bronze badges














        • $begingroup$
          LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
          $endgroup$
          – Randall
          9 hours ago
















        • $begingroup$
          LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
          $endgroup$
          – Randall
          9 hours ago















        $begingroup$
        LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
        $endgroup$
        – Randall
        9 hours ago




        $begingroup$
        LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
        $endgroup$
        – Randall
        9 hours ago













        1














        $begingroup$

        For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.



        So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".



        A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
        $$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
        Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
        $$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
        And then use the identity on both sides to get
        $$B=C$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



















          1














          $begingroup$

          For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.



          So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".



          A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
          $$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
          Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
          $$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
          And then use the identity on both sides to get
          $$B=C$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$

















            1














            1










            1







            $begingroup$

            For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.



            So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".



            A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
            $$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
            Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
            $$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
            And then use the identity on both sides to get
            $$B=C$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.



            So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".



            A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
            $$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
            Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
            $$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
            And then use the identity on both sides to get
            $$B=C$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 9 hours ago









            Milo BrandtMilo Brandt

            41k5 gold badges80 silver badges141 bronze badges




            41k5 gold badges80 silver badges141 bronze badges
























                1














                $begingroup$

                Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.



                There are two cases:




                1. $xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction


                2. $xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.

                Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.




                Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.



                Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



















                  1














                  $begingroup$

                  Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.



                  There are two cases:




                  1. $xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction


                  2. $xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.

                  Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.




                  Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.



                  Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$

















                    1














                    1










                    1







                    $begingroup$

                    Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.



                    There are two cases:




                    1. $xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction


                    2. $xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.

                    Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.




                    Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.



                    Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.



                    There are two cases:




                    1. $xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction


                    2. $xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.

                    Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.




                    Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.



                    Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited 9 hours ago

























                    answered 9 hours ago









                    rschwiebrschwieb

                    113k12 gold badges113 silver badges266 bronze badges




                    113k12 gold badges113 silver badges266 bronze badges
























                        1














                        $begingroup$

                        For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
                        noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
                        where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).



                        If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
                        (Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)



                        Using characteristic functions, we have
                        $1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
                        $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$














                        • $begingroup$
                          Corrected egregious mistake.
                          $endgroup$
                          – copper.hat
                          9 hours ago















                        1














                        $begingroup$

                        For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
                        noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
                        where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).



                        If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
                        (Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)



                        Using characteristic functions, we have
                        $1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
                        $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$














                        • $begingroup$
                          Corrected egregious mistake.
                          $endgroup$
                          – copper.hat
                          9 hours ago













                        1














                        1










                        1







                        $begingroup$

                        For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
                        noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
                        where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).



                        If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
                        (Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)



                        Using characteristic functions, we have
                        $1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
                        $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$



                        For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
                        noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
                        where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).



                        If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
                        (Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)



                        Using characteristic functions, we have
                        $1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
                        $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        edited 9 hours ago

























                        answered 9 hours ago









                        copper.hatcopper.hat

                        132k6 gold badges63 silver badges171 bronze badges




                        132k6 gold badges63 silver badges171 bronze badges














                        • $begingroup$
                          Corrected egregious mistake.
                          $endgroup$
                          – copper.hat
                          9 hours ago
















                        • $begingroup$
                          Corrected egregious mistake.
                          $endgroup$
                          – copper.hat
                          9 hours ago















                        $begingroup$
                        Corrected egregious mistake.
                        $endgroup$
                        – copper.hat
                        9 hours ago




                        $begingroup$
                        Corrected egregious mistake.
                        $endgroup$
                        – copper.hat
                        9 hours ago











                        1














                        $begingroup$

                        I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
                        $$
                        x in A
                        xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
                        xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
                        xrightarrowx in A x notin B
                        ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                        $$

                        $$
                        x notin A
                        xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
                        xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
                        xrightarrowx notin A x in C
                        ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                        $$

                        Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
                        This completes the proof.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$



















                          1














                          $begingroup$

                          I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
                          $$
                          x in A
                          xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
                          xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
                          xrightarrowx in A x notin B
                          ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                          $$

                          $$
                          x notin A
                          xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
                          xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
                          xrightarrowx notin A x in C
                          ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                          $$

                          Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
                          This completes the proof.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$

















                            1














                            1










                            1







                            $begingroup$

                            I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
                            $$
                            x in A
                            xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
                            xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
                            xrightarrowx in A x notin B
                            ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                            $$

                            $$
                            x notin A
                            xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
                            xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
                            xrightarrowx notin A x in C
                            ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                            $$

                            Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
                            This completes the proof.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
                            $$
                            x in A
                            xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
                            xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
                            xrightarrowx in A x notin B
                            ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                            $$

                            $$
                            x notin A
                            xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
                            xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
                            xrightarrowx notin A x in C
                            ~~~~~~text(contradiction)
                            $$

                            Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
                            This completes the proof.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered 8 hours ago









                            guestguest

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