Let A,B,C be sets. If A△B=A△C, does this imply that B=C?Does an injective function imply two sets have same cardinality?Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are sets and that $f: A rightarrow B$ is onto. Does being onto guarantee the sets are finite?How to know which of these sets are equivalentwhat does “a set of sets that are not members of themselves” of Russell’s Paradox meanWhy does the well ordering principle imply induction.For a system of sets closed under union and complement, does there always exists a partition generating itWhat property of cycles can disprove this?Using set notation for sets with repeating charactersTrue or false? This relation is an equivalence relation: $xRy Leftrightarrow x cdot y$ is evenIf for some sets $A, B$ we have their symmetric difference $(A-B) cup (B-A) =B$. Then does that imply $A=emptyset$
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Let A,B,C be sets. If A△B=A△C, does this imply that B=C?
Does an injective function imply two sets have same cardinality?Suppose that $A$ and $B$ are sets and that $f: A rightarrow B$ is onto. Does being onto guarantee the sets are finite?How to know which of these sets are equivalentwhat does “a set of sets that are not members of themselves” of Russell’s Paradox meanWhy does the well ordering principle imply induction.For a system of sets closed under union and complement, does there always exists a partition generating itWhat property of cycles can disprove this?Using set notation for sets with repeating charactersTrue or false? This relation is an equivalence relation: $xRy Leftrightarrow x cdot y$ is evenIf for some sets $A, B$ we have their symmetric difference $(A-B) cup (B-A) =B$. Then does that imply $A=emptyset$
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.
discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.
discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.
discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
$endgroup$
I believe that a counterexample exists, but I have struggled to find one since I need to satisfy (AB) U (BA) = (AC) U (CA), which is a very complex statement. Also I used △ to represent symmetric difference.
discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory
asked 9 hours ago
Matt SchiffMatt Schiff
826 bronze badges
826 bronze badges
2
$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago
2
2
$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.
So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".
A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.
There are two cases:
$xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction
$xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.
Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.
Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.
Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).
If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
(Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)
Using characteristic functions, we have
$1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
$1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
$$
x in A
xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowx in A x notin B
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
$$
x notin A
xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
xrightarrowx notin A x in C
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
This completes the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$
$endgroup$
$Delta$ is associative, hence $AoperatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDeltaC$ implies
$$ B=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaB=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaB)=AoperatornameDelta(AoperatornameDeltaC)=(AoperatornameDeltaA)operatornameDeltaC=C.$$
answered 9 hours ago
Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen
297k24 gold badges285 silver badges524 bronze badges
297k24 gold badges285 silver badges524 bronze badges
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
LOL I love this. I was trying to avoid the group-theoretic approach, but this is cleaner.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.
So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".
A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.
So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".
A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.
So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".
A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$
$endgroup$
For an elementary approach, you can split into cases - it's most convenient to make cases based on whether $xin A$. We want to show that, given that $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, we have that $xin B$ if and only if $xin C$.
So, first let's handle the case where $xin A$. Note that $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xnotin B$ and $xin Atriangle C$ if and only if $xnotin C$. However, $xin Atriangle B$ if and only if $xin Atriangle C$ as these sets are equal, so we find that, if $xin A$, then $xnotin B$ if and only if $xnotin C$. The case where $xnotin A$ is handled similarly - though if you were trying to write this out very formally, you might split into further cases to avoid confusions from using statement like "if this, then this if and only if that".
A more elegant way to show this would be to show the following identity:
$$Atriangle (Atriangle S) = S.$$
Then, starting from $Atriangle B=Atriangle C$, you can just apply $Atriangle cdot$ to both sides to get
$$Atriangle (Atriangle B)=Atriangle (Atriangle C)$$
And then use the identity on both sides to get
$$B=C$$
answered 9 hours ago
Milo BrandtMilo Brandt
41k5 gold badges80 silver badges141 bronze badges
41k5 gold badges80 silver badges141 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.
There are two cases:
$xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction
$xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.
Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.
Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.
Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.
There are two cases:
$xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction
$xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.
Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.
Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.
Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.
There are two cases:
$xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction
$xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.
Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.
Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.
Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.
$endgroup$
Suppose $xin B$ and $xnotin C$, and the equality of symmetric differences holds.
There are two cases:
$xin A$: here you easily see it is not in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$, a contradiction
$xnotin A$: then it is not in $(Asetminus C)cup (Csetminus A)$ but it is in $(Asetminus B)cup (Bsetminus A)$, another contradiction.
Therefore no such $x$ exists, and $Bsubseteq C$. By the symmetric argument, $Csubseteq B$.
Another algebraic way to do it is if you know that (assuming $A,B,C$ are subsets of $X$) $triangle$ is an abelian group operation on the subsets of $X$, one in which all elements have order $2$, and the emptyset is the identity.
Suppose we then write $Atriangle B=A+B$. Then the equation $A+B=A+C$ can be simplified by adding $-A=A$ to both sides, whereupon you immediately get $C=B$.
edited 9 hours ago
answered 9 hours ago
rschwiebrschwieb
113k12 gold badges113 silver badges266 bronze badges
113k12 gold badges113 silver badges266 bronze badges
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).
If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
(Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)
Using characteristic functions, we have
$1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
$1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).
If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
(Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)
Using characteristic functions, we have
$1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
$1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).
If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
(Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)
Using characteristic functions, we have
$1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
$1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.
$endgroup$
For me, manipulations with $triangle$ are easier if one uses the characteristic function
noting that $1_A triangle B = 1_A oplus 1_B$,
where $oplus$ is 'exclusive or' (mild abuse of notation).
If $x,y$ have values in $0,1$, then $x oplus x = 0$, $0 oplus x = x$.
(Equivalently, $A triangle A = emptyset$ and $emptyset triangle A = A$.)
Using characteristic functions, we have
$1_A oplus 1_B = 1_A oplus 1_C$, so $1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_B = 1_B$ and similarly
$1_A oplus 1_A oplus 1_C = 1_C$. Hence $1_B = 1_C$ and so $B=C$.
edited 9 hours ago
answered 9 hours ago
copper.hatcopper.hat
132k6 gold badges63 silver badges171 bronze badges
132k6 gold badges63 silver badges171 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
$begingroup$
Corrected egregious mistake.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
9 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
$$
x in A
xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowx in A x notin B
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
$$
x notin A
xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
xrightarrowx notin A x in C
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
This completes the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
$$
x in A
xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowx in A x notin B
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
$$
x notin A
xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
xrightarrowx notin A x in C
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
This completes the proof.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
$$
x in A
xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowx in A x notin B
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
$$
x notin A
xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
xrightarrowx notin A x in C
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
This completes the proof.
$endgroup$
I'd like to add one more proof -- by contradiction. Suppose there exist such $x in B$ that $x notin C$. Consider two cases
$$
x in A
xrightarrowx notin C x in A triangle C
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowx in A x notin B
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
$$
x notin A
xrightarrowx in B x in A triangle B
xrightarrowA triangle C = A triangle B x in A triangle C
xrightarrowx notin A x in C
~~~~~~text(contradiction)
$$
Swapping letters 'B' and 'C' we can prove that there is also no such $x$ that $x notin B$ and $x in C$.
This completes the proof.
answered 8 hours ago
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$begingroup$
Note that $A triangle B = (A cup B) - (Acap B)$ Now it is easy to prove in cases. If $b in B$ argue that $b in C$ by cases $b in A$ or $b notin A$. Repeat the other direction.
$endgroup$
– Randall
9 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
For a more conceptual answer: symmetric difference is a group operation on sets; the identity element is the empty set; and every set is its own inverse. So your question can be regarded as just the left cancellation law for groups.
$endgroup$
– Lee Mosher
9 hours ago