Curious question about cardinality of finite setsWork-at-home days such that the office is always staffedUsing matrix theory to solve this problemChoose unique numbers from different setsProve that the intersection of all the sets is nonempty.Curiosity about large and small setsInvolution that brings sets to disjoint setsNumber of elements in a finitely generated Dynkin systemCan all convex $3n$-iamonds be tiled by $3$-iamonds?Is |A − B| = |A| − |B| always true or sometimes false?

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Curious question about cardinality of finite sets


Work-at-home days such that the office is always staffedUsing matrix theory to solve this problemChoose unique numbers from different setsProve that the intersection of all the sets is nonempty.Curiosity about large and small setsInvolution that brings sets to disjoint setsNumber of elements in a finitely generated Dynkin systemCan all convex $3n$-iamonds be tiled by $3$-iamonds?Is |A − B| = |A| − |B| always true or sometimes false?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








8












$begingroup$


Suppose we are given three finite, non-empty sets $A, B, C$ such that $|C|leq |A| leq |B|$. Is it always true that $fracAcap C + fracBcap CB leq 1 + fracB$?



I have tried countless examples for days and I haven't found any counterexample so far... This is just a curious question. But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    "But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    7 hours ago

















8












$begingroup$


Suppose we are given three finite, non-empty sets $A, B, C$ such that $|C|leq |A| leq |B|$. Is it always true that $fracAcap C + fracBcap CB leq 1 + fracB$?



I have tried countless examples for days and I haven't found any counterexample so far... This is just a curious question. But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    "But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    7 hours ago













8












8








8


1



$begingroup$


Suppose we are given three finite, non-empty sets $A, B, C$ such that $|C|leq |A| leq |B|$. Is it always true that $fracAcap C + fracBcap CB leq 1 + fracB$?



I have tried countless examples for days and I haven't found any counterexample so far... This is just a curious question. But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose we are given three finite, non-empty sets $A, B, C$ such that $|C|leq |A| leq |B|$. Is it always true that $fracAcap C + fracBcap CB leq 1 + fracB$?



I have tried countless examples for days and I haven't found any counterexample so far... This is just a curious question. But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?







combinatorics






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago









Asaf Karagila

316k35 gold badges454 silver badges793 bronze badges




316k35 gold badges454 silver badges793 bronze badges










asked 8 hours ago









CastorCastor

582 bronze badges




582 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    "But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    7 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    8 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    "But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
    $endgroup$
    – TonyK
    7 hours ago















$begingroup$
Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
8 hours ago




$begingroup$
Since these cardinals are necessarily finite (otherwise the division has no meaning), the question is not a set theory question, but rather a combinatorial question.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
8 hours ago












$begingroup$
"But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
$endgroup$
– TonyK
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
"But if it's true, there has to be a proof, right?" Not necessarily. Gödel's theorems guarantee the existence of statements that are true but not provable. But in this simple case, I think it is safe to say that yes, if it's true then there has to be a proof. I'm working on it:-)
$endgroup$
– TonyK
7 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4














$begingroup$

As Asaf Karagila already noted, this is not a set theory question (nor a combinatorial one, I'd say), since it basically follows from an algebraic approach.



Define $|A|=a, |B|=b, |C|=c$ and $|Acap Bcap C|=x.$ Also, let $|(Acap B)setminus C|=r,$ $|(Acap C)setminus B|=s$ and $|(Bcap C)setminus A|=t.$ We can now rewrite the given inequality as $$fracs+xa+fract+xbleq 1+fracr+xbimplies fracs+xa+fract-rbleq 1implies b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq ab.$$ Since all the variables are non-negative and $cleq aleq b,$ we have that $$b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq b(s+x)+atleq b(s+x)+bt=b(s+t+x).$$ However, notice that $s+t+xleq c$ since $(Acap C)setminus B, (Bcap C)setminus A$ and $Acap Bcap C$ are disjoint subsets of $C,$ thus $b(s+t+x)leq bcleq ab,$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
    $endgroup$
    – Castor
    7 hours ago


















2














$begingroup$

Points of $C$ outside of $Acup B$ do not occur in your inequality. Therefore we may assume $Csubset Acup B$. It follows that $Acap Csubset A$ and $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$. This implies
$$Acap C+leq 1+ .$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    5 hours ago













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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









4














$begingroup$

As Asaf Karagila already noted, this is not a set theory question (nor a combinatorial one, I'd say), since it basically follows from an algebraic approach.



Define $|A|=a, |B|=b, |C|=c$ and $|Acap Bcap C|=x.$ Also, let $|(Acap B)setminus C|=r,$ $|(Acap C)setminus B|=s$ and $|(Bcap C)setminus A|=t.$ We can now rewrite the given inequality as $$fracs+xa+fract+xbleq 1+fracr+xbimplies fracs+xa+fract-rbleq 1implies b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq ab.$$ Since all the variables are non-negative and $cleq aleq b,$ we have that $$b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq b(s+x)+atleq b(s+x)+bt=b(s+t+x).$$ However, notice that $s+t+xleq c$ since $(Acap C)setminus B, (Bcap C)setminus A$ and $Acap Bcap C$ are disjoint subsets of $C,$ thus $b(s+t+x)leq bcleq ab,$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
    $endgroup$
    – Castor
    7 hours ago















4














$begingroup$

As Asaf Karagila already noted, this is not a set theory question (nor a combinatorial one, I'd say), since it basically follows from an algebraic approach.



Define $|A|=a, |B|=b, |C|=c$ and $|Acap Bcap C|=x.$ Also, let $|(Acap B)setminus C|=r,$ $|(Acap C)setminus B|=s$ and $|(Bcap C)setminus A|=t.$ We can now rewrite the given inequality as $$fracs+xa+fract+xbleq 1+fracr+xbimplies fracs+xa+fract-rbleq 1implies b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq ab.$$ Since all the variables are non-negative and $cleq aleq b,$ we have that $$b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq b(s+x)+atleq b(s+x)+bt=b(s+t+x).$$ However, notice that $s+t+xleq c$ since $(Acap C)setminus B, (Bcap C)setminus A$ and $Acap Bcap C$ are disjoint subsets of $C,$ thus $b(s+t+x)leq bcleq ab,$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
    $endgroup$
    – Castor
    7 hours ago













4














4










4







$begingroup$

As Asaf Karagila already noted, this is not a set theory question (nor a combinatorial one, I'd say), since it basically follows from an algebraic approach.



Define $|A|=a, |B|=b, |C|=c$ and $|Acap Bcap C|=x.$ Also, let $|(Acap B)setminus C|=r,$ $|(Acap C)setminus B|=s$ and $|(Bcap C)setminus A|=t.$ We can now rewrite the given inequality as $$fracs+xa+fract+xbleq 1+fracr+xbimplies fracs+xa+fract-rbleq 1implies b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq ab.$$ Since all the variables are non-negative and $cleq aleq b,$ we have that $$b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq b(s+x)+atleq b(s+x)+bt=b(s+t+x).$$ However, notice that $s+t+xleq c$ since $(Acap C)setminus B, (Bcap C)setminus A$ and $Acap Bcap C$ are disjoint subsets of $C,$ thus $b(s+t+x)leq bcleq ab,$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



As Asaf Karagila already noted, this is not a set theory question (nor a combinatorial one, I'd say), since it basically follows from an algebraic approach.



Define $|A|=a, |B|=b, |C|=c$ and $|Acap Bcap C|=x.$ Also, let $|(Acap B)setminus C|=r,$ $|(Acap C)setminus B|=s$ and $|(Bcap C)setminus A|=t.$ We can now rewrite the given inequality as $$fracs+xa+fract+xbleq 1+fracr+xbimplies fracs+xa+fract-rbleq 1implies b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq ab.$$ Since all the variables are non-negative and $cleq aleq b,$ we have that $$b(s+x)+a(t-r)leq b(s+x)+atleq b(s+x)+bt=b(s+t+x).$$ However, notice that $s+t+xleq c$ since $(Acap C)setminus B, (Bcap C)setminus A$ and $Acap Bcap C$ are disjoint subsets of $C,$ thus $b(s+t+x)leq bcleq ab,$ as desired.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 7 hours ago









FedeX333XFedeX333X

684 bronze badges




684 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
    $endgroup$
    – Castor
    7 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
    $endgroup$
    – Castor
    7 hours ago















$begingroup$
This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
$endgroup$
– Castor
7 hours ago




$begingroup$
This is beautiful! It never occurred to me to consider those extra cardinals. You have ended my frustration, sir.
$endgroup$
– Castor
7 hours ago













2














$begingroup$

Points of $C$ outside of $Acup B$ do not occur in your inequality. Therefore we may assume $Csubset Acup B$. It follows that $Acap Csubset A$ and $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$. This implies
$$Acap C+leq 1+ .$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    5 hours ago















2














$begingroup$

Points of $C$ outside of $Acup B$ do not occur in your inequality. Therefore we may assume $Csubset Acup B$. It follows that $Acap Csubset A$ and $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$. This implies
$$Acap C+leq 1+ .$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    5 hours ago













2














2










2







$begingroup$

Points of $C$ outside of $Acup B$ do not occur in your inequality. Therefore we may assume $Csubset Acup B$. It follows that $Acap Csubset A$ and $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$. This implies
$$Acap C+leq 1+ .$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Points of $C$ outside of $Acup B$ do not occur in your inequality. Therefore we may assume $Csubset Acup B$. It follows that $Acap Csubset A$ and $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$. This implies
$$Acap C+leq 1+ .$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered 6 hours ago









Christian BlatterChristian Blatter

182k10 gold badges123 silver badges342 bronze badges




182k10 gold badges123 silver badges342 bronze badges














  • $begingroup$
    How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    5 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
    $endgroup$
    – saulspatz
    5 hours ago















$begingroup$
How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
How do you get $Bcap Csubset Bcap A$? This doesn't follow from $Csubset Acup B$. Take $A=1,2,3,4,B=3,4,5,6,C=3,5.$ Then $Bcap C =3,5,Acap B=3,4$
$endgroup$
– saulspatz
5 hours ago


















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