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Hidden fifths between tenor and soprano in Tchaikovsky's “Guide to harmony”


What's the difference between harmony and polyphony?Identifying Vocal HarmoniesAre counterpoint and harmony mutually exclusive?Dissonances and harmonyHelp harmonizing a pieceDifference between Chord Progression and Harmony?What is the difference between harmony and consonance in music?Appoggiatura chordBach's Toccata and Fugue in D minor breaks the “no parallel octaves” rule?Will this help me avoid parallel octaves in future fugue attempts?






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5















I have been working through Tchaikovsky's "Guide to practical harmony" and found the following example quite early in the book:



enter image description here



I am talking about the first measure. To me it seems that soprano and tenor are approaching the perfect fifth in similar motion, which Tchaikovsky strongly prohibits later in the book (giving some exceptions with harmonic sequences). But this example he represents as a correct voice leading for bass and upper voices move contrary to each other.



I have following guess:



It seems like that he only cares about hidden fifths where bass is one of the voices, but he does not articulate it explicitly. In upper voices he cares only about parallel (not hidden fifths).



Can someone give an explanation?



Edit:
It can also be added that hidden fifth would have been completely ok, if we had the same tone in one of the voices (oblique motion), which we also do not have.










share|improve this question
































    5















    I have been working through Tchaikovsky's "Guide to practical harmony" and found the following example quite early in the book:



    enter image description here



    I am talking about the first measure. To me it seems that soprano and tenor are approaching the perfect fifth in similar motion, which Tchaikovsky strongly prohibits later in the book (giving some exceptions with harmonic sequences). But this example he represents as a correct voice leading for bass and upper voices move contrary to each other.



    I have following guess:



    It seems like that he only cares about hidden fifths where bass is one of the voices, but he does not articulate it explicitly. In upper voices he cares only about parallel (not hidden fifths).



    Can someone give an explanation?



    Edit:
    It can also be added that hidden fifth would have been completely ok, if we had the same tone in one of the voices (oblique motion), which we also do not have.










    share|improve this question




























      5












      5








      5


      1






      I have been working through Tchaikovsky's "Guide to practical harmony" and found the following example quite early in the book:



      enter image description here



      I am talking about the first measure. To me it seems that soprano and tenor are approaching the perfect fifth in similar motion, which Tchaikovsky strongly prohibits later in the book (giving some exceptions with harmonic sequences). But this example he represents as a correct voice leading for bass and upper voices move contrary to each other.



      I have following guess:



      It seems like that he only cares about hidden fifths where bass is one of the voices, but he does not articulate it explicitly. In upper voices he cares only about parallel (not hidden fifths).



      Can someone give an explanation?



      Edit:
      It can also be added that hidden fifth would have been completely ok, if we had the same tone in one of the voices (oblique motion), which we also do not have.










      share|improve this question
















      I have been working through Tchaikovsky's "Guide to practical harmony" and found the following example quite early in the book:



      enter image description here



      I am talking about the first measure. To me it seems that soprano and tenor are approaching the perfect fifth in similar motion, which Tchaikovsky strongly prohibits later in the book (giving some exceptions with harmonic sequences). But this example he represents as a correct voice leading for bass and upper voices move contrary to each other.



      I have following guess:



      It seems like that he only cares about hidden fifths where bass is one of the voices, but he does not articulate it explicitly. In upper voices he cares only about parallel (not hidden fifths).



      Can someone give an explanation?



      Edit:
      It can also be added that hidden fifth would have been completely ok, if we had the same tone in one of the voices (oblique motion), which we also do not have.







      harmony counterpoint






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 6 hours ago







      NickQuant

















      asked 9 hours ago









      NickQuantNickQuant

      386 bronze badges




      386 bronze badges























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          You can‘t join 2 neighbored chords without having hidden parallels. And they have no common tone!
          Most important is counter movement between bass and soprano.



          Notice also example 27 on the next page: enter image description here



          Hidden fifths can actually only be avoided by doubling the 3rd of the second chord like in harmonic minor V-VI.






          share|improve this answer

























          • Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago












          • If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago














          Your Answer








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          You can‘t join 2 neighbored chords without having hidden parallels. And they have no common tone!
          Most important is counter movement between bass and soprano.



          Notice also example 27 on the next page: enter image description here



          Hidden fifths can actually only be avoided by doubling the 3rd of the second chord like in harmonic minor V-VI.






          share|improve this answer

























          • Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago












          • If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago
















          3
















          You can‘t join 2 neighbored chords without having hidden parallels. And they have no common tone!
          Most important is counter movement between bass and soprano.



          Notice also example 27 on the next page: enter image description here



          Hidden fifths can actually only be avoided by doubling the 3rd of the second chord like in harmonic minor V-VI.






          share|improve this answer

























          • Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago












          • If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago














          3














          3










          3









          You can‘t join 2 neighbored chords without having hidden parallels. And they have no common tone!
          Most important is counter movement between bass and soprano.



          Notice also example 27 on the next page: enter image description here



          Hidden fifths can actually only be avoided by doubling the 3rd of the second chord like in harmonic minor V-VI.






          share|improve this answer













          You can‘t join 2 neighbored chords without having hidden parallels. And they have no common tone!
          Most important is counter movement between bass and soprano.



          Notice also example 27 on the next page: enter image description here



          Hidden fifths can actually only be avoided by doubling the 3rd of the second chord like in harmonic minor V-VI.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 8 hours ago









          Albrecht HügliAlbrecht Hügli

          7,1671 gold badge7 silver badges26 bronze badges




          7,1671 gold badge7 silver badges26 bronze badges















          • Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago












          • If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago


















          • Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago












          • If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

            – NickQuant
            8 hours ago

















          Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

          – NickQuant
          8 hours ago






          Oh! You are right. I have overseen this. The "gut" examples do not have the same tone in the same voice, which actually is said to be a prerequisite for accepting a hidden fifth, octave. So should I avoid by doubling the 3rd or is it ok and we care only about hidden parallels with a bass?

          – NickQuant
          8 hours ago














          If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

          – NickQuant
          8 hours ago






          If I rephrase the previous question. Does my progression become "better" from some harmonic perspective if I drop the third or it is irrelevant for the contrary movement of bass?

          – NickQuant
          8 hours ago



















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