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Why is infinite intersection “towards infinity” an empty set?


Questions regarding the Proof of Egorov's Theorem (Carothers)Stable set by intersection and by finite unionExample of decreasing sequence of sets with first set having infinite measureEventually in a set, meaning?Infinite Union/Intersection vs Infinite summationinfinite set don't contain sigma algebra that have more than one countable complementCan the interior of the intersection of a closed and an open set be empty if the intersection is non-empty?Why is an uncountable union of null sets not necessarily a null set?Complex measure of empty set.






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2












$begingroup$


Why is infinite intersection "towards infinity" an empty set?



Or i.e.



Why is:



$$cap_i=1^infty F_n = emptyset$$



$$F_n=[n, infty)$$



There's intuition, the intersection is always the "smallest of the sets" so eventually it will be $(infty,infty)$ or something like that.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




















    2












    $begingroup$


    Why is infinite intersection "towards infinity" an empty set?



    Or i.e.



    Why is:



    $$cap_i=1^infty F_n = emptyset$$



    $$F_n=[n, infty)$$



    There's intuition, the intersection is always the "smallest of the sets" so eventually it will be $(infty,infty)$ or something like that.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$
















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Why is infinite intersection "towards infinity" an empty set?



      Or i.e.



      Why is:



      $$cap_i=1^infty F_n = emptyset$$



      $$F_n=[n, infty)$$



      There's intuition, the intersection is always the "smallest of the sets" so eventually it will be $(infty,infty)$ or something like that.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Why is infinite intersection "towards infinity" an empty set?



      Or i.e.



      Why is:



      $$cap_i=1^infty F_n = emptyset$$



      $$F_n=[n, infty)$$



      There's intuition, the intersection is always the "smallest of the sets" so eventually it will be $(infty,infty)$ or something like that.







      measure-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked 8 hours ago









      mavaviljmavavilj

      2,9631 gold badge13 silver badges43 bronze badges




      2,9631 gold badge13 silver badges43 bronze badges























          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          6














          $begingroup$

          The intersection is made up of real numbers which are greater than or equal to every positive integer. By Archimedes' property, there's none.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$






















            3














            $begingroup$

            To belong in the intersection, any element would have to belong in each of the sets $[n,infty)$ which means it must be larger than every finite number. Since there is no finite number with this property, the intersection is therefore empty.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$






















              1














              $begingroup$

              Suppose, to obtain a contradiction, that $F=cap_n F_n$ is non-empty. Let $x in F$. Then, $xge n$ for all $n in mathbb N$. However, there is no largest real number, so we must conclude that $F = emptyset$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$






















                1














                $begingroup$

                It might be a little easier to understand via the contrapositive:



                Let $x$ be any real number. Then we know that there exists a positive integer $n_x$ larger than $x$. (This is the so-called Archimedean property of the reals, but intuitively you can think of $n_x$ just being $x$ rounded up to the next integer, or if $x$ is negative you can just let $n_x$ be $1$.) That means $x$ is not in the set $F_n_x$, so it certainly cannot be in the intersection $bigcap_n F_n$. This is true no matter what $x$ is, so $bigcap_n F_n$ cannot contain any real numbers at all, which is to say it equals the empty set.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  Your Answer








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                  4 Answers
                  4






                  active

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                  4 Answers
                  4






                  active

                  oldest

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                  active

                  oldest

                  votes






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  6














                  $begingroup$

                  The intersection is made up of real numbers which are greater than or equal to every positive integer. By Archimedes' property, there's none.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



















                    6














                    $begingroup$

                    The intersection is made up of real numbers which are greater than or equal to every positive integer. By Archimedes' property, there's none.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$

















                      6














                      6










                      6







                      $begingroup$

                      The intersection is made up of real numbers which are greater than or equal to every positive integer. By Archimedes' property, there's none.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      The intersection is made up of real numbers which are greater than or equal to every positive integer. By Archimedes' property, there's none.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered 8 hours ago









                      BernardBernard

                      133k7 gold badges43 silver badges126 bronze badges




                      133k7 gold badges43 silver badges126 bronze badges


























                          3














                          $begingroup$

                          To belong in the intersection, any element would have to belong in each of the sets $[n,infty)$ which means it must be larger than every finite number. Since there is no finite number with this property, the intersection is therefore empty.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



















                            3














                            $begingroup$

                            To belong in the intersection, any element would have to belong in each of the sets $[n,infty)$ which means it must be larger than every finite number. Since there is no finite number with this property, the intersection is therefore empty.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$

















                              3














                              3










                              3







                              $begingroup$

                              To belong in the intersection, any element would have to belong in each of the sets $[n,infty)$ which means it must be larger than every finite number. Since there is no finite number with this property, the intersection is therefore empty.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              To belong in the intersection, any element would have to belong in each of the sets $[n,infty)$ which means it must be larger than every finite number. Since there is no finite number with this property, the intersection is therefore empty.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered 8 hours ago









                              pre-kidneypre-kidney

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                              18.3k22 silver badges59 bronze badges
























                                  1














                                  $begingroup$

                                  Suppose, to obtain a contradiction, that $F=cap_n F_n$ is non-empty. Let $x in F$. Then, $xge n$ for all $n in mathbb N$. However, there is no largest real number, so we must conclude that $F = emptyset$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$



















                                    1














                                    $begingroup$

                                    Suppose, to obtain a contradiction, that $F=cap_n F_n$ is non-empty. Let $x in F$. Then, $xge n$ for all $n in mathbb N$. However, there is no largest real number, so we must conclude that $F = emptyset$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$

















                                      1














                                      1










                                      1







                                      $begingroup$

                                      Suppose, to obtain a contradiction, that $F=cap_n F_n$ is non-empty. Let $x in F$. Then, $xge n$ for all $n in mathbb N$. However, there is no largest real number, so we must conclude that $F = emptyset$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$



                                      Suppose, to obtain a contradiction, that $F=cap_n F_n$ is non-empty. Let $x in F$. Then, $xge n$ for all $n in mathbb N$. However, there is no largest real number, so we must conclude that $F = emptyset$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited 8 hours ago

























                                      answered 8 hours ago









                                      Theoretical EconomistTheoretical Economist

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                                      3,9832 gold badges8 silver badges31 bronze badges
























                                          1














                                          $begingroup$

                                          It might be a little easier to understand via the contrapositive:



                                          Let $x$ be any real number. Then we know that there exists a positive integer $n_x$ larger than $x$. (This is the so-called Archimedean property of the reals, but intuitively you can think of $n_x$ just being $x$ rounded up to the next integer, or if $x$ is negative you can just let $n_x$ be $1$.) That means $x$ is not in the set $F_n_x$, so it certainly cannot be in the intersection $bigcap_n F_n$. This is true no matter what $x$ is, so $bigcap_n F_n$ cannot contain any real numbers at all, which is to say it equals the empty set.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$



















                                            1














                                            $begingroup$

                                            It might be a little easier to understand via the contrapositive:



                                            Let $x$ be any real number. Then we know that there exists a positive integer $n_x$ larger than $x$. (This is the so-called Archimedean property of the reals, but intuitively you can think of $n_x$ just being $x$ rounded up to the next integer, or if $x$ is negative you can just let $n_x$ be $1$.) That means $x$ is not in the set $F_n_x$, so it certainly cannot be in the intersection $bigcap_n F_n$. This is true no matter what $x$ is, so $bigcap_n F_n$ cannot contain any real numbers at all, which is to say it equals the empty set.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$

















                                              1














                                              1










                                              1







                                              $begingroup$

                                              It might be a little easier to understand via the contrapositive:



                                              Let $x$ be any real number. Then we know that there exists a positive integer $n_x$ larger than $x$. (This is the so-called Archimedean property of the reals, but intuitively you can think of $n_x$ just being $x$ rounded up to the next integer, or if $x$ is negative you can just let $n_x$ be $1$.) That means $x$ is not in the set $F_n_x$, so it certainly cannot be in the intersection $bigcap_n F_n$. This is true no matter what $x$ is, so $bigcap_n F_n$ cannot contain any real numbers at all, which is to say it equals the empty set.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$



                                              It might be a little easier to understand via the contrapositive:



                                              Let $x$ be any real number. Then we know that there exists a positive integer $n_x$ larger than $x$. (This is the so-called Archimedean property of the reals, but intuitively you can think of $n_x$ just being $x$ rounded up to the next integer, or if $x$ is negative you can just let $n_x$ be $1$.) That means $x$ is not in the set $F_n_x$, so it certainly cannot be in the intersection $bigcap_n F_n$. This is true no matter what $x$ is, so $bigcap_n F_n$ cannot contain any real numbers at all, which is to say it equals the empty set.







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered 8 hours ago









                                              Nate EldredgeNate Eldredge

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