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Different past tense for various *et words


Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D?Which is the correct past tense of “spin”: “span” or “spun”?Which past tense of “to light” should I use here?Is “must” ever grammatical as a past tense verb?Irregular past tense confusion with compound noun/verb. More examples?Verb Tense: Talking about Events in fictional workPast tense of “to cast” in the programming senseWhat is the past tense of “lightning”?Past tense ending for verbs ending in -a






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2















The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?










share|improve this question







New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 3





    Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago











  • Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

    – Justin
    8 hours ago












  • Related answer

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago






  • 1





    Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

    – PavelAndré
    8 hours ago












  • You left out get / got....

    – Hellion
    8 hours ago

















2















The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?










share|improve this question







New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 3





    Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago











  • Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

    – Justin
    8 hours ago












  • Related answer

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago






  • 1





    Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

    – PavelAndré
    8 hours ago












  • You left out get / got....

    – Hellion
    8 hours ago













2












2








2


2






The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?










share|improve this question







New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?







verbs






share|improve this question







New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.










share|improve this question







New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








share|improve this question




share|improve this question






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Check out our Code of Conduct.








asked 9 hours ago









Gary EzzellGary Ezzell

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141 bronze badge




New contributor



Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




New contributor




Gary Ezzell is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • 3





    Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago











  • Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

    – Justin
    8 hours ago












  • Related answer

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago






  • 1





    Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

    – PavelAndré
    8 hours ago












  • You left out get / got....

    – Hellion
    8 hours ago












  • 3





    Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

    – tchrist
    8 hours ago











  • Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

    – Justin
    8 hours ago












  • Related answer

    – Andrew Leach
    8 hours ago






  • 1





    Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

    – PavelAndré
    8 hours ago












  • You left out get / got....

    – Hellion
    8 hours ago







3




3





Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

– tchrist
8 hours ago





Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.

– tchrist
8 hours ago













Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

– Justin
8 hours ago






Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…

– Justin
8 hours ago














Related answer

– Andrew Leach
8 hours ago





Related answer

– Andrew Leach
8 hours ago




1




1





Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

– PavelAndré
8 hours ago






Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.

– PavelAndré
8 hours ago














You left out get / got....

– Hellion
8 hours ago





You left out get / got....

– Hellion
8 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5















There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:



  1. they consist of only one syllable

  2. they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/

  3. they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/

  4. they are not inflected for past tense or past participle

Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.

There are around 25 verbs in the list:



  • beat,
    bet,
    bid,
    burst,
    cast,
    cost,
    cut,
    fit,
    hit,
    hurt,
    knit,
    let,
    put,
    quit,

    rid,
    set,
    shed,
    shut,
    slit,
    spit,
    split,
    spread,
    thrust,
    upset,
    wed.

As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,

so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.



Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.

Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.






share|improve this answer

























  • I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago











  • I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

    – John Lawler
    6 hours ago







  • 1





    @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    6 hours ago






  • 1





    Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

    – Araucaria
    3 hours ago



















2















There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)



Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."






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    2 Answers
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    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5















    There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:



    1. they consist of only one syllable

    2. they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/

    3. they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/

    4. they are not inflected for past tense or past participle

    Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.

    There are around 25 verbs in the list:



    • beat,
      bet,
      bid,
      burst,
      cast,
      cost,
      cut,
      fit,
      hit,
      hurt,
      knit,
      let,
      put,
      quit,

      rid,
      set,
      shed,
      shut,
      slit,
      spit,
      split,
      spread,
      thrust,
      upset,
      wed.

    As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,

    so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.



    Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.

    Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.






    share|improve this answer

























    • I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

      – sumelic
      6 hours ago











    • I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

      – John Lawler
      6 hours ago







    • 1





      @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      6 hours ago






    • 1





      Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

      – Araucaria
      3 hours ago
















    5















    There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:



    1. they consist of only one syllable

    2. they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/

    3. they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/

    4. they are not inflected for past tense or past participle

    Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.

    There are around 25 verbs in the list:



    • beat,
      bet,
      bid,
      burst,
      cast,
      cost,
      cut,
      fit,
      hit,
      hurt,
      knit,
      let,
      put,
      quit,

      rid,
      set,
      shed,
      shut,
      slit,
      spit,
      split,
      spread,
      thrust,
      upset,
      wed.

    As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,

    so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.



    Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.

    Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.






    share|improve this answer

























    • I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

      – sumelic
      6 hours ago











    • I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

      – John Lawler
      6 hours ago







    • 1





      @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      6 hours ago






    • 1





      Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

      – Araucaria
      3 hours ago














    5














    5










    5









    There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:



    1. they consist of only one syllable

    2. they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/

    3. they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/

    4. they are not inflected for past tense or past participle

    Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.

    There are around 25 verbs in the list:



    • beat,
      bet,
      bid,
      burst,
      cast,
      cost,
      cut,
      fit,
      hit,
      hurt,
      knit,
      let,
      put,
      quit,

      rid,
      set,
      shed,
      shut,
      slit,
      spit,
      split,
      spread,
      thrust,
      upset,
      wed.

    As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,

    so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.



    Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.

    Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.






    share|improve this answer













    There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:



    1. they consist of only one syllable

    2. they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/

    3. they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/

    4. they are not inflected for past tense or past participle

    Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.

    There are around 25 verbs in the list:



    • beat,
      bet,
      bid,
      burst,
      cast,
      cost,
      cut,
      fit,
      hit,
      hurt,
      knit,
      let,
      put,
      quit,

      rid,
      set,
      shed,
      shut,
      slit,
      spit,
      split,
      spread,
      thrust,
      upset,
      wed.

    As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,

    so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.



    Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.

    Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 6 hours ago









    John LawlerJohn Lawler

    86.9k6 gold badges122 silver badges349 bronze badges




    86.9k6 gold badges122 silver badges349 bronze badges















    • I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

      – sumelic
      6 hours ago











    • I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

      – John Lawler
      6 hours ago







    • 1





      @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      6 hours ago






    • 1





      Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

      – Araucaria
      3 hours ago


















    • I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

      – sumelic
      6 hours ago











    • I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

      – John Lawler
      6 hours ago







    • 1





      @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

      – Janus Bahs Jacquet
      6 hours ago






    • 1





      Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

      – Araucaria
      3 hours ago

















    I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago





    I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago













    I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

    – John Lawler
    6 hours ago






    I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)

    – John Lawler
    6 hours ago





    1




    1





    @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    6 hours ago





    @sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)

    – Janus Bahs Jacquet
    6 hours ago




    1




    1





    Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

    – Araucaria
    3 hours ago






    Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.

    – Araucaria
    3 hours ago














    2















    There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)



    Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."






    share|improve this answer































      2















      There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)



      Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."






      share|improve this answer





























        2














        2










        2









        There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)



        Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."






        share|improve this answer















        There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)



        Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 6 hours ago

























        answered 6 hours ago









        sumelicsumelic

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