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Different past tense for various *et words
Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D?Which is the correct past tense of “spin”: “span” or “spun”?Which past tense of “to light” should I use here?Is “must” ever grammatical as a past tense verb?Irregular past tense confusion with compound noun/verb. More examples?Verb Tense: Talking about Events in fictional workPast tense of “to cast” in the programming senseWhat is the past tense of “lightning”?Past tense ending for verbs ending in -a
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The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?
verbs
New contributor
|
show 2 more comments
The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?
verbs
New contributor
3
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
1
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?
verbs
New contributor
The past tense of Bet, Let, and Set are Bet, Let, and Set; but the past tense of Jet, Net, Pet, Vet, and Wet are Jetted, Netted, Petted, Vetted, and Wetted. Is there a reason for this difference?
verbs
verbs
New contributor
New contributor
New contributor
asked 9 hours ago
Gary EzzellGary Ezzell
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3
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
1
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
3
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
1
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago
3
3
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
1
1
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago
|
show 2 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:
- they consist of only one syllable
- they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/
- they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/
- they are not inflected for past tense or past participle
Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.
There are around 25 verbs in the list:
- beat,
bet,
bid,
burst,
cast,
cost,
cut,
fit,
hit,
hurt,
knit,
let,
put,
quit,
rid,
set,
shed,
shut,
slit,
spit,
split,
spread,
thrust,
upset,
wed.
As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,
so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.
Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.
Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
add a comment |
There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)
Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:
- they consist of only one syllable
- they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/
- they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/
- they are not inflected for past tense or past participle
Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.
There are around 25 verbs in the list:
- beat,
bet,
bid,
burst,
cast,
cost,
cut,
fit,
hit,
hurt,
knit,
let,
put,
quit,
rid,
set,
shed,
shut,
slit,
spit,
split,
spread,
thrust,
upset,
wed.
As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,
so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.
Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.
Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
add a comment |
There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:
- they consist of only one syllable
- they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/
- they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/
- they are not inflected for past tense or past participle
Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.
There are around 25 verbs in the list:
- beat,
bet,
bid,
burst,
cast,
cost,
cut,
fit,
hit,
hurt,
knit,
let,
put,
quit,
rid,
set,
shed,
shut,
slit,
spit,
split,
spread,
thrust,
upset,
wed.
As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,
so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.
Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.
Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
add a comment |
There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:
- they consist of only one syllable
- they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/
- they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/
- they are not inflected for past tense or past participle
Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.
There are around 25 verbs in the list:
- beat,
bet,
bid,
burst,
cast,
cost,
cut,
fit,
hit,
hurt,
knit,
let,
put,
quit,
rid,
set,
shed,
shut,
slit,
spit,
split,
spread,
thrust,
upset,
wed.
As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,
so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.
Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.
Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.
There is a set of English irregular verbs that have four unusual characteristics:
- they consist of only one syllable
- they end in a dental stop, /d/ or /t/
- they have a lax or low vowel - /ɛ ɪ æ ɔ ʊ ə ɚ/
- they are not inflected for past tense or past participle
Examples are the verbs bet, let, set, as noted, but also others, like cut, spit, and cast.
There are around 25 verbs in the list:
- beat,
bet,
bid,
burst,
cast,
cost,
cut,
fit,
hit,
hurt,
knit,
let,
put,
quit,
rid,
set,
shed,
shut,
slit,
spit,
split,
spread,
thrust,
upset,
wed.
As can be seen, the verbs jet, net, pet, wet, and vet are not in the list,
so those are regular verbs with regular past tense forms in -ed.
Why those verbs and not others? Because that's the way irregularities work.
Irregular verbs do not happen by rule -- irregular means 'not by rule'.
answered 6 hours ago
John LawlerJohn Lawler
86.9k6 gold badges122 silver badges349 bronze badges
86.9k6 gold badges122 silver badges349 bronze badges
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
add a comment |
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't know whether it's necessary to restrict this category to verbs with lax vowels. There are also verbs that have a long vowel in the present but a short vowel in the past tense/participle, like read/read, lead/led, feed/fed, breed/bred, meet/met.
– sumelic
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
I don't think that's necessary; it's just characteristic. The defining characteristic is the zero-affixation in the principal parts: set, set, set; quit, quit, quit; put, put, put. That's the set determiner; the other properties just turn out to be common; dunno why. It can be expanded into the whole manifold of strong verbiage, but I'd rather not, thanks. :-)
– John Lawler
6 hours ago
1
1
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
@sumelic Beat, which is the first on the list in the answer, doesn’t have a lax vowel either, not even in the past; and beat and bid also inflect for past participle. (Also, wet is absolutely on the list for me in some senses. “He wet himself” sounds absolutely bizarre to me with a weak past-tense form. Pet is also common enough with a zero-past, though probably still more common with a regular past.)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
6 hours ago
1
1
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
Well, there obviously does seem to be a reason why. They all end in /t/. Adding a syllable final /t/ to a word ending in a voiceless consonant is the normal method of addending the past tense morpheme. But English won't allow a geminate /tt/ to do that job when the base verb ends in /t/. For most verbs ending in /t/, the solution is to insert a vowel between the verb-final /t/ and its suffix. However another solution is to delete the /t/-suffix altogether.
– Araucaria
3 hours ago
add a comment |
There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)
Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."
add a comment |
There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)
Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."
add a comment |
There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)
Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."
There isn't any particularly simple reason for it. (There might be a complicated reason that I don't know of.) Bet, let, set fall into the category of verbs ending in t or d that can be viewed as having an irregular "contracted" past-tense form where the -ed suffix, rather than being pronounced as a distinct syllable (as it usually is after t or d) is lost by merging with the preceding t or d. (E.g. see Araucaria's comment/Lawrence's answer here: Irregular verbs in English - why do so many end in D? It's not just a thing with verbs ending in -et.)
Bet also has an alternative past tense form betted where -ed is pronounced as a second syllable. The irregular form bet doesn't appear to be obviously older than the regular form betted: the Oxford English Dictionary's earliest citation for betted is from 1600 Shakespeare Henry IV, Pt. 2 iii. ii. 44: "Iohn a Gaunt loued him well, and betted much money on his head."
edited 6 hours ago
answered 6 hours ago
sumelicsumelic
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3
Yes, there very much is. Let me see whether I can't find the duplicate.
– tchrist♦
8 hours ago
Not necessary for "bet". It's past tense can also be "betted" - google.com/…
– Justin
8 hours ago
Related answer
– Andrew Leach♦
8 hours ago
1
Bet, let and set are all words descended from Old English verbs. All the others that you mentioned are have other origins (Old French and Gaelic for instance), except for "wet", which is also Old English in origin and which can also be an irregular verb with three identical forms. I think that's at least one of the reasons why it's so.
– PavelAndré
8 hours ago
You left out get / got....
– Hellion
8 hours ago