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If the government illegally doesn't ask for article 50 extension, can parliament do it instead?


What happens if Parliament rejects the Brexit deal?“The Treaties” in article 50 of the Lisbon TreatyWhat's the point in holding a second Brexit referendum?Is EU Treaty Article 50 (2) paradoxical?Why is participating in the European Parliamentary elections used as a threat?Why is an extension of Article 50 needed if a deal gets accepted?What is the maximum sanction that can be placed on a UK government or PM for acting illegallyWhen does the European Scrutiny Committee get involved in the legislative process?If Parliament were prorogued for a long period, how would the government raise funds?Could the UK amend the European Withdrawal Act and revoke the Article 50 invocation?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








4















The Guardian reported under the headline "Brexit: Gove refuses to rule out ignoring any law passed to stop no deal":




Michael Gove has repeatedly refused to rule out the possibility that the government could ignore any law passed by parliament to stop a no-deal Brexit




and




Asked again whether it would be extraordinary for a government not to abide by the law, Gove said: “We will see what the legislation says when it is brought forward.




Concerning extensions, all I found out is the actual article1 reading




  1. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period.
    (emphasis mine)



doesn't specify how extensions are requested, in fact, it doesn't even say anything about a request, just "in agreement with the Member State".



So, the final question:



If the parliament were to pass legislation mandating extension and the government refuses to ask the European Council, can one of these happen:



  • the EU just says: "Well, parliament said it, so the UK want to extend, we'll decide if we want to as well"

  • parliament (possibly through some representative e.g. speaker) decides to ask themselves


Please don't question if practically the Council could agree internally at short notice, just assume it could happen.



If you want, I'd be happy to see information on whether such an extension without government involvement would practically work, although that is not the primary question.




1 link doesn't go to the treaty, but European Parliament research (including article 50 on page 2) because it was the top europa.eu search result it provides context and further reading in case anyone is interested.










share|improve this question





















  • 1





    The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago

















4















The Guardian reported under the headline "Brexit: Gove refuses to rule out ignoring any law passed to stop no deal":




Michael Gove has repeatedly refused to rule out the possibility that the government could ignore any law passed by parliament to stop a no-deal Brexit




and




Asked again whether it would be extraordinary for a government not to abide by the law, Gove said: “We will see what the legislation says when it is brought forward.




Concerning extensions, all I found out is the actual article1 reading




  1. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period.
    (emphasis mine)



doesn't specify how extensions are requested, in fact, it doesn't even say anything about a request, just "in agreement with the Member State".



So, the final question:



If the parliament were to pass legislation mandating extension and the government refuses to ask the European Council, can one of these happen:



  • the EU just says: "Well, parliament said it, so the UK want to extend, we'll decide if we want to as well"

  • parliament (possibly through some representative e.g. speaker) decides to ask themselves


Please don't question if practically the Council could agree internally at short notice, just assume it could happen.



If you want, I'd be happy to see information on whether such an extension without government involvement would practically work, although that is not the primary question.




1 link doesn't go to the treaty, but European Parliament research (including article 50 on page 2) because it was the top europa.eu search result it provides context and further reading in case anyone is interested.










share|improve this question





















  • 1





    The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago













4












4








4








The Guardian reported under the headline "Brexit: Gove refuses to rule out ignoring any law passed to stop no deal":




Michael Gove has repeatedly refused to rule out the possibility that the government could ignore any law passed by parliament to stop a no-deal Brexit




and




Asked again whether it would be extraordinary for a government not to abide by the law, Gove said: “We will see what the legislation says when it is brought forward.




Concerning extensions, all I found out is the actual article1 reading




  1. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period.
    (emphasis mine)



doesn't specify how extensions are requested, in fact, it doesn't even say anything about a request, just "in agreement with the Member State".



So, the final question:



If the parliament were to pass legislation mandating extension and the government refuses to ask the European Council, can one of these happen:



  • the EU just says: "Well, parliament said it, so the UK want to extend, we'll decide if we want to as well"

  • parliament (possibly through some representative e.g. speaker) decides to ask themselves


Please don't question if practically the Council could agree internally at short notice, just assume it could happen.



If you want, I'd be happy to see information on whether such an extension without government involvement would practically work, although that is not the primary question.




1 link doesn't go to the treaty, but European Parliament research (including article 50 on page 2) because it was the top europa.eu search result it provides context and further reading in case anyone is interested.










share|improve this question
















The Guardian reported under the headline "Brexit: Gove refuses to rule out ignoring any law passed to stop no deal":




Michael Gove has repeatedly refused to rule out the possibility that the government could ignore any law passed by parliament to stop a no-deal Brexit




and




Asked again whether it would be extraordinary for a government not to abide by the law, Gove said: “We will see what the legislation says when it is brought forward.




Concerning extensions, all I found out is the actual article1 reading




  1. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period.
    (emphasis mine)



doesn't specify how extensions are requested, in fact, it doesn't even say anything about a request, just "in agreement with the Member State".



So, the final question:



If the parliament were to pass legislation mandating extension and the government refuses to ask the European Council, can one of these happen:



  • the EU just says: "Well, parliament said it, so the UK want to extend, we'll decide if we want to as well"

  • parliament (possibly through some representative e.g. speaker) decides to ask themselves


Please don't question if practically the Council could agree internally at short notice, just assume it could happen.



If you want, I'd be happy to see information on whether such an extension without government involvement would practically work, although that is not the primary question.




1 link doesn't go to the treaty, but European Parliament research (including article 50 on page 2) because it was the top europa.eu search result it provides context and further reading in case anyone is interested.







united-kingdom european-union brexit parliament article-50






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 8 hours ago







user24343

















asked 8 hours ago









user24343user24343

3112 silver badges6 bronze badges




3112 silver badges6 bronze badges










  • 1





    The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago












  • 1





    The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago







1




1





The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

– WS2
6 hours ago





The Supreme Court is increasingly being asked to rule on issues of this kind - such as the action being brought by Gina Miller and Sir John Major next week. As British politicians begin to shun convention, which has historically governed our country, I foresee a new body of competence building with the SC to deal with such matters as this.

– WS2
6 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















6















Probably not.



Article 10 of the Treaty of the European Union states that:




Member States are represented in the European Council by their Heads of State or Government




It follows, therefore, that any notification made to the European Council must come from either the relevant country's Head of State or Head of Government. In the case of the United Kingdom, it would have to come from either Boris Johnson (as head of government) or HM The Queen (as head of state).






share|improve this answer

























  • Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

    – user24343
    7 hours ago











  • Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago











  • @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago











  • @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

    – Joe C
    5 hours ago







  • 1





    (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

    – Relaxed
    5 hours ago



















0















The correct thing to do in such a case is to call a vote of no confidence, and topple the government. Parliment can then give it's confidence to someone who will make that request
However, given that parliament taken as a whole has shown an aversion so far to actually voting for anything definitive, rather choosing to just put spokes in the wheels of other plans, it is debatable if they would go down the correct route or just panic at an even later stage.






share|improve this answer



























    Your Answer








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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    6















    Probably not.



    Article 10 of the Treaty of the European Union states that:




    Member States are represented in the European Council by their Heads of State or Government




    It follows, therefore, that any notification made to the European Council must come from either the relevant country's Head of State or Head of Government. In the case of the United Kingdom, it would have to come from either Boris Johnson (as head of government) or HM The Queen (as head of state).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

      – user24343
      7 hours ago











    • Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

      – Joe C
      5 hours ago







    • 1





      (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

      – Relaxed
      5 hours ago
















    6















    Probably not.



    Article 10 of the Treaty of the European Union states that:




    Member States are represented in the European Council by their Heads of State or Government




    It follows, therefore, that any notification made to the European Council must come from either the relevant country's Head of State or Head of Government. In the case of the United Kingdom, it would have to come from either Boris Johnson (as head of government) or HM The Queen (as head of state).






    share|improve this answer

























    • Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

      – user24343
      7 hours ago











    • Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

      – Joe C
      5 hours ago







    • 1





      (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

      – Relaxed
      5 hours ago














    6














    6










    6









    Probably not.



    Article 10 of the Treaty of the European Union states that:




    Member States are represented in the European Council by their Heads of State or Government




    It follows, therefore, that any notification made to the European Council must come from either the relevant country's Head of State or Head of Government. In the case of the United Kingdom, it would have to come from either Boris Johnson (as head of government) or HM The Queen (as head of state).






    share|improve this answer













    Probably not.



    Article 10 of the Treaty of the European Union states that:




    Member States are represented in the European Council by their Heads of State or Government




    It follows, therefore, that any notification made to the European Council must come from either the relevant country's Head of State or Head of Government. In the case of the United Kingdom, it would have to come from either Boris Johnson (as head of government) or HM The Queen (as head of state).







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 8 hours ago









    Joe CJoe C

    6,66913 silver badges44 bronze badges




    6,66913 silver badges44 bronze badges















    • Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

      – user24343
      7 hours ago











    • Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

      – Joe C
      5 hours ago







    • 1





      (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

      – Relaxed
      5 hours ago


















    • Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

      – user24343
      7 hours ago











    • Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

      – WS2
      6 hours ago











    • @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

      – Joe C
      5 hours ago







    • 1





      (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

      – Relaxed
      5 hours ago

















    Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

    – user24343
    7 hours ago





    Thank you for your answer. I'll wait a bit before accepting, just in case something can be added, although this seems quite final.

    – user24343
    7 hours ago













    Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago





    Surely it cannot be Article 10, can it? Article 10 is the one dealing with freedom of the press.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago













    @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago





    @user24343 Perhaps I'm thinking of Article 10 of the Human Rights Convention. Apologies.

    – WS2
    6 hours ago













    @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

    – Joe C
    5 hours ago






    @WS2 That is indeed Article 10 of the European Convention on Human Rights that you're thinking of.

    – Joe C
    5 hours ago





    1




    1





    (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

    – Relaxed
    5 hours ago






    (+1) It's also a general principle of international law and diplomacy. Countries are represented by their executive and diplomatic service, with other countries deliberately avoiding meddling with internal constitutional processes (responsibilities within the cabinet, negotiation mandates, ratification procedures for treaties, etc.) unless there is a complete breakdown of the constitutional order (think rival governments, government in exile and the like).

    – Relaxed
    5 hours ago














    0















    The correct thing to do in such a case is to call a vote of no confidence, and topple the government. Parliment can then give it's confidence to someone who will make that request
    However, given that parliament taken as a whole has shown an aversion so far to actually voting for anything definitive, rather choosing to just put spokes in the wheels of other plans, it is debatable if they would go down the correct route or just panic at an even later stage.






    share|improve this answer





























      0















      The correct thing to do in such a case is to call a vote of no confidence, and topple the government. Parliment can then give it's confidence to someone who will make that request
      However, given that parliament taken as a whole has shown an aversion so far to actually voting for anything definitive, rather choosing to just put spokes in the wheels of other plans, it is debatable if they would go down the correct route or just panic at an even later stage.






      share|improve this answer



























        0














        0










        0









        The correct thing to do in such a case is to call a vote of no confidence, and topple the government. Parliment can then give it's confidence to someone who will make that request
        However, given that parliament taken as a whole has shown an aversion so far to actually voting for anything definitive, rather choosing to just put spokes in the wheels of other plans, it is debatable if they would go down the correct route or just panic at an even later stage.






        share|improve this answer













        The correct thing to do in such a case is to call a vote of no confidence, and topple the government. Parliment can then give it's confidence to someone who will make that request
        However, given that parliament taken as a whole has shown an aversion so far to actually voting for anything definitive, rather choosing to just put spokes in the wheels of other plans, it is debatable if they would go down the correct route or just panic at an even later stage.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 3 hours ago









        OrangesandlemonsOrangesandlemons

        2,7726 silver badges22 bronze badges




        2,7726 silver badges22 bronze badges






























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