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Infinite past with a beginning?

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Infinite past with a beginning?


Difference between 'infinite' and 'not finite'Is there any philosophical significance to the arithmetization of infinity?Cantor and infinitiesIs infinite regress of causation possible? Is infinite regress of causation necessary?Could there ever be evidence for an infinite being?Is the axiom of infinity truly an axiom?A concept in which an infinite force is also limitedHow is it possible for an infinite number of moments to have elapsed prior to now?Is actual infinity physical infinity? Or just the axiom of infinity?Can you divide the natural numbers in half sequentially?













2















I can conceive of an infinite past with a beginning. I can in fact represent this idea by simple diagram, part analogical, part symbolic. So, to me, this idea is a logical possibility.



I initially believed that nearly everyone should be able to do the same. Apparently, I was wrong. Many people object to it, vehemently, on the ground that the ordinary, conventional notion of an infinite past is that of a past which is infinite precisely because it has no beginning.



So, as the argument goes, the notion of an infinite past with a beginning would be a contradiction in terms, and this even though, unlike for example "bachelor", there is no dictionary definition of "infinite past", and there is therefore no dictionary definition of an infinite past as having no beginning.



As I understand it, our initial notion of the infinite came from our sense that time is going to continue and that, therefore, it is literally not finished, i.e. in-finite, or "not complete" as some people like to put it.



Still, since more than a century ago now, mathematicians have learnt to deal with the notion of actual infinite, i.e. the notion of an infinite that would be complete. This is not necessarily the same idea as that of an infinite with a limit, though.



As I understand it, the idea of an actual infinite came as a consequence of assuming the existence of a set containing an infinite number of elements. The number of elements is infinite but the set itself contains all of them and so is an "actual" infinite. This in itself doesn't imply that the set contains a greatest or smallest element but the set is thought of as containing the entirety of an infinity of elements, which seems to imply at least that the set is indeed a "complete", or an actual, infinity.



However, it seems to me that, for example, the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite. It of course has a "beginning" and an "end". And I think of it as commensurable to an infinite past with a beginning, or even an infinite time with both a beginning and an end.



So, how would it be necessarily illogical to think of the past as both infinite and with a beginning?



Or why would it be somehow necessary that if the past is infinite, it has no beginning?










share|improve this question

















  • 3





    Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago






  • 2





    So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago







  • 1





    I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

    – Charles M Saunders
    9 hours ago











  • The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

    – Richard
    5 hours ago












  • No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

    – John Forkosh
    1 hour ago















2















I can conceive of an infinite past with a beginning. I can in fact represent this idea by simple diagram, part analogical, part symbolic. So, to me, this idea is a logical possibility.



I initially believed that nearly everyone should be able to do the same. Apparently, I was wrong. Many people object to it, vehemently, on the ground that the ordinary, conventional notion of an infinite past is that of a past which is infinite precisely because it has no beginning.



So, as the argument goes, the notion of an infinite past with a beginning would be a contradiction in terms, and this even though, unlike for example "bachelor", there is no dictionary definition of "infinite past", and there is therefore no dictionary definition of an infinite past as having no beginning.



As I understand it, our initial notion of the infinite came from our sense that time is going to continue and that, therefore, it is literally not finished, i.e. in-finite, or "not complete" as some people like to put it.



Still, since more than a century ago now, mathematicians have learnt to deal with the notion of actual infinite, i.e. the notion of an infinite that would be complete. This is not necessarily the same idea as that of an infinite with a limit, though.



As I understand it, the idea of an actual infinite came as a consequence of assuming the existence of a set containing an infinite number of elements. The number of elements is infinite but the set itself contains all of them and so is an "actual" infinite. This in itself doesn't imply that the set contains a greatest or smallest element but the set is thought of as containing the entirety of an infinity of elements, which seems to imply at least that the set is indeed a "complete", or an actual, infinity.



However, it seems to me that, for example, the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite. It of course has a "beginning" and an "end". And I think of it as commensurable to an infinite past with a beginning, or even an infinite time with both a beginning and an end.



So, how would it be necessarily illogical to think of the past as both infinite and with a beginning?



Or why would it be somehow necessary that if the past is infinite, it has no beginning?










share|improve this question

















  • 3





    Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago






  • 2





    So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago







  • 1





    I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

    – Charles M Saunders
    9 hours ago











  • The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

    – Richard
    5 hours ago












  • No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

    – John Forkosh
    1 hour ago













2












2








2








I can conceive of an infinite past with a beginning. I can in fact represent this idea by simple diagram, part analogical, part symbolic. So, to me, this idea is a logical possibility.



I initially believed that nearly everyone should be able to do the same. Apparently, I was wrong. Many people object to it, vehemently, on the ground that the ordinary, conventional notion of an infinite past is that of a past which is infinite precisely because it has no beginning.



So, as the argument goes, the notion of an infinite past with a beginning would be a contradiction in terms, and this even though, unlike for example "bachelor", there is no dictionary definition of "infinite past", and there is therefore no dictionary definition of an infinite past as having no beginning.



As I understand it, our initial notion of the infinite came from our sense that time is going to continue and that, therefore, it is literally not finished, i.e. in-finite, or "not complete" as some people like to put it.



Still, since more than a century ago now, mathematicians have learnt to deal with the notion of actual infinite, i.e. the notion of an infinite that would be complete. This is not necessarily the same idea as that of an infinite with a limit, though.



As I understand it, the idea of an actual infinite came as a consequence of assuming the existence of a set containing an infinite number of elements. The number of elements is infinite but the set itself contains all of them and so is an "actual" infinite. This in itself doesn't imply that the set contains a greatest or smallest element but the set is thought of as containing the entirety of an infinity of elements, which seems to imply at least that the set is indeed a "complete", or an actual, infinity.



However, it seems to me that, for example, the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite. It of course has a "beginning" and an "end". And I think of it as commensurable to an infinite past with a beginning, or even an infinite time with both a beginning and an end.



So, how would it be necessarily illogical to think of the past as both infinite and with a beginning?



Or why would it be somehow necessary that if the past is infinite, it has no beginning?










share|improve this question














I can conceive of an infinite past with a beginning. I can in fact represent this idea by simple diagram, part analogical, part symbolic. So, to me, this idea is a logical possibility.



I initially believed that nearly everyone should be able to do the same. Apparently, I was wrong. Many people object to it, vehemently, on the ground that the ordinary, conventional notion of an infinite past is that of a past which is infinite precisely because it has no beginning.



So, as the argument goes, the notion of an infinite past with a beginning would be a contradiction in terms, and this even though, unlike for example "bachelor", there is no dictionary definition of "infinite past", and there is therefore no dictionary definition of an infinite past as having no beginning.



As I understand it, our initial notion of the infinite came from our sense that time is going to continue and that, therefore, it is literally not finished, i.e. in-finite, or "not complete" as some people like to put it.



Still, since more than a century ago now, mathematicians have learnt to deal with the notion of actual infinite, i.e. the notion of an infinite that would be complete. This is not necessarily the same idea as that of an infinite with a limit, though.



As I understand it, the idea of an actual infinite came as a consequence of assuming the existence of a set containing an infinite number of elements. The number of elements is infinite but the set itself contains all of them and so is an "actual" infinite. This in itself doesn't imply that the set contains a greatest or smallest element but the set is thought of as containing the entirety of an infinity of elements, which seems to imply at least that the set is indeed a "complete", or an actual, infinity.



However, it seems to me that, for example, the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite. It of course has a "beginning" and an "end". And I think of it as commensurable to an infinite past with a beginning, or even an infinite time with both a beginning and an end.



So, how would it be necessarily illogical to think of the past as both infinite and with a beginning?



Or why would it be somehow necessary that if the past is infinite, it has no beginning?







time infinity infinite






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 13 hours ago









SpeakpigeonSpeakpigeon

1659




1659







  • 3





    Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago






  • 2





    So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago







  • 1





    I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

    – Charles M Saunders
    9 hours ago











  • The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

    – Richard
    5 hours ago












  • No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

    – John Forkosh
    1 hour ago












  • 3





    Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago






  • 2





    So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    13 hours ago







  • 1





    I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

    – Charles M Saunders
    9 hours ago











  • The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

    – Richard
    5 hours ago












  • No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

    – John Forkosh
    1 hour ago







3




3





Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
13 hours ago





Ther are "many" concepts of infinite at play here : having an infinite number of elements (this is the post-Cantorian sense) : e.g. the set N of all natural numbers. Conceived as a single entity (as an actual infinite) it is one set with infinite many elements. The same for [0,1], but in addition it also "continuous" , i.e. we can subdivide it without end (in the Aristotelian sense) meaning that for every two numbers in it we can always find something in between (not so for two consecutive naturals in N. In addition, it is limited from below and above.

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
13 hours ago




2




2





So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
13 hours ago






So, it is infinite, infinitely divisible and at the same time limited. Thus the 0 of N can be thinked as the beginning of the number sequence. [0,1] instead is not a sequence with a "beginning" in the same sense. THus, what is the "correct" model of time : N, [0,1], [0, infinity], [-infinity, + infinity] ? Other ?

– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
13 hours ago





1




1





I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

– Charles M Saunders
9 hours ago





I once saw a bumper sticker which read, "You don't have to believe everything you think." CS

– Charles M Saunders
9 hours ago













The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

– Richard
5 hours ago






The problem is that it's not possible to have a thought without time itself. But what if tme itself had a beginning, say about 15bn years ago.

– Richard
5 hours ago














No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

– John Forkosh
1 hour ago





No, "the interval of Real numbers [0, 1] is already conceived of as an actual infinite" is completely incorrect. The interval is finite. It's the collection of real numbers in that interval which is (uncountably) infinite. And possibly likewise for time. The typical interpretation of "infinite past" is the interval, whereby there can't be a beginning. If you want to instead interpret it as "collection of instantaneous past moments", then maybe that's not finite, even if the interval [beginning,now] is.

– John Forkosh
1 hour ago










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















6














Aristotle said the past is infinite because, for any past time we can imagine an earlier one. Aristotle's arguments aside, this is what people mean when they speak of an infinite past: for any time x, there exists another time y such that y precedes x. Colloquially, "there is no first moment in time". If time has a beginning, it means that there is a time x, such that there is no time y that precedes it. Colloquially, "there is a first moment in time". This is a contradiction; so there cannot be both an infinite past (in the sense described above) and a first moment (a beginning).



Mauro ALLEGRANZA in his comments explains that there can be different ways something can be said to be "infinite", but in the context of philosophical arguments where an infinite past is discussed, it is probably the sense that I describe in my first paragraph.






share|improve this answer























  • So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

    – Speakpigeon
    11 hours ago











  • @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

    – Adam
    11 hours ago












  • Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

    – H Walters
    11 hours ago











  • @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

    – Adam
    10 hours ago






  • 1





    @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

    – Adam
    10 hours ago


















2














It depends on exactly what you mean by an infinite past.



Let's start by defining some terms so we can deal with this rigorously. Let t be an arbitrary time, and let t = 0 be the present. Any t < 0 is in the past; any t > 0 is in the future.



Let us suppose now that time has a beginning; we'll place it at t = a. There exist an infinite number of instants in time between a and 0. For example: -a/2, -a/4, -a/8, etc. For any natural number n, t = -a/(2^n) is a time after a but before 0. There are a countably infinite number of natural numbers, so there are a countably infinite number of such points. (And there are also an uncountably infinite number of points in that range that are not of the form -a/(2^n).



But we have an infinite number of elements only because we keep dividing it into smaller and smaller divisions. Suppose that instead of asking how many instants of time exist between the beginning and the present, we instead ask how many seconds there have been since the beginning of time. That number is decidedly finite.



In summary,
if there is a beginning of time, then there is a finite length of time between that beginning and the present, but we can divide that finite length into an infinite number of infinitesimal chunks. (Mathematically, anyway. Whether physics actually permits dividing it up that much is an open question.)






share|improve this answer






























    0














    To answer this, we need to visit Hilbert's hotel.



    It's an infinitely long corridor with an infinite number of rooms, and an infinite number of guests.



    One day an extra guest turns up and wants a room. Hilbert can't send him down the corridor - it will take literally forever. So he asks all the guests to move one room down the corridor. The guest in room 1 moves into room 2, the guest in room 2 moves into room 3, and so on.



    We can see that, while it was already an infinity, this does not mean that it can't be incremented by 1. An infinity does not necessarily equal another infinity.



    What if an infinitely big coach turns up with an infinite number of guests? That's ok: you just ask all the existing guests to move into the next even-numbered rooms. The guest in 1 moves into 2, the guest in 2 moves into 4, the guest in 3 moves into 6, the guest in 4 moves into 8, and so on.



    Now you have an infinity which is twice as big as it was before.



    The point here: something can have a beginning and still be infinite. It can start at zero and go all the way up to a positive infinity. It doesn't have to start from a negative infinity, or even from zero. Can you start at 100 and count infinitely upward? Yes, of course you can. It's infinite as long as it doesn't have an end.



    The stumbling block here is that, conventionally thought of, the past does have an end: the present. So there can be an infinite period of time with a beginning, but it has to stretch out into the future as well.






    share|improve this answer








    New contributor




    Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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    • 1





      Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

      – curiousdannii
      5 hours ago






    • 1





      The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

      – Ross Millikan
      29 mins ago


















    0














    We can simply define a set called the negatively extended integers. It consists of the usual integers plus a, which is like minus infinity. We then define that a is less than all the usual integers. Now a is the minimum of our set, so it is the beginning. At any point of the set that is not a there are infinitely many predecessors. This is a fine totally ordered (as times should be) set that meets your requirement.






    share|improve this answer























    • This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

      – user4894
      9 mins ago











    • @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

      – Ross Millikan
      7 mins ago











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    Aristotle said the past is infinite because, for any past time we can imagine an earlier one. Aristotle's arguments aside, this is what people mean when they speak of an infinite past: for any time x, there exists another time y such that y precedes x. Colloquially, "there is no first moment in time". If time has a beginning, it means that there is a time x, such that there is no time y that precedes it. Colloquially, "there is a first moment in time". This is a contradiction; so there cannot be both an infinite past (in the sense described above) and a first moment (a beginning).



    Mauro ALLEGRANZA in his comments explains that there can be different ways something can be said to be "infinite", but in the context of philosophical arguments where an infinite past is discussed, it is probably the sense that I describe in my first paragraph.






    share|improve this answer























    • So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

      – Speakpigeon
      11 hours ago











    • @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

      – Adam
      11 hours ago












    • Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

      – H Walters
      11 hours ago











    • @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

      – Adam
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

      – Adam
      10 hours ago















    6














    Aristotle said the past is infinite because, for any past time we can imagine an earlier one. Aristotle's arguments aside, this is what people mean when they speak of an infinite past: for any time x, there exists another time y such that y precedes x. Colloquially, "there is no first moment in time". If time has a beginning, it means that there is a time x, such that there is no time y that precedes it. Colloquially, "there is a first moment in time". This is a contradiction; so there cannot be both an infinite past (in the sense described above) and a first moment (a beginning).



    Mauro ALLEGRANZA in his comments explains that there can be different ways something can be said to be "infinite", but in the context of philosophical arguments where an infinite past is discussed, it is probably the sense that I describe in my first paragraph.






    share|improve this answer























    • So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

      – Speakpigeon
      11 hours ago











    • @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

      – Adam
      11 hours ago












    • Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

      – H Walters
      11 hours ago











    • @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

      – Adam
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

      – Adam
      10 hours ago













    6












    6








    6







    Aristotle said the past is infinite because, for any past time we can imagine an earlier one. Aristotle's arguments aside, this is what people mean when they speak of an infinite past: for any time x, there exists another time y such that y precedes x. Colloquially, "there is no first moment in time". If time has a beginning, it means that there is a time x, such that there is no time y that precedes it. Colloquially, "there is a first moment in time". This is a contradiction; so there cannot be both an infinite past (in the sense described above) and a first moment (a beginning).



    Mauro ALLEGRANZA in his comments explains that there can be different ways something can be said to be "infinite", but in the context of philosophical arguments where an infinite past is discussed, it is probably the sense that I describe in my first paragraph.






    share|improve this answer













    Aristotle said the past is infinite because, for any past time we can imagine an earlier one. Aristotle's arguments aside, this is what people mean when they speak of an infinite past: for any time x, there exists another time y such that y precedes x. Colloquially, "there is no first moment in time". If time has a beginning, it means that there is a time x, such that there is no time y that precedes it. Colloquially, "there is a first moment in time". This is a contradiction; so there cannot be both an infinite past (in the sense described above) and a first moment (a beginning).



    Mauro ALLEGRANZA in his comments explains that there can be different ways something can be said to be "infinite", but in the context of philosophical arguments where an infinite past is discussed, it is probably the sense that I describe in my first paragraph.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 12 hours ago









    AdamAdam

    5628




    5628












    • So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

      – Speakpigeon
      11 hours ago











    • @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

      – Adam
      11 hours ago












    • Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

      – H Walters
      11 hours ago











    • @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

      – Adam
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

      – Adam
      10 hours ago

















    • So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

      – Speakpigeon
      11 hours ago











    • @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

      – Adam
      11 hours ago












    • Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

      – H Walters
      11 hours ago











    • @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

      – Adam
      10 hours ago






    • 1





      @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

      – Adam
      10 hours ago
















    So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

    – Speakpigeon
    11 hours ago





    So, how would you call an infinite past with a beginning?

    – Speakpigeon
    11 hours ago













    @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

    – Adam
    11 hours ago






    @Speakpigeon Perhaps "dense", or "continuous"? Density states that for any two moments in time, there is another moment between them (plato.stanford.edu/entries/logic-temporal/#InsBasModFloTim). Continuity states that time is like the real number line, with no "holes" in it. Both imply there are infinitely many moments in time (if time is linear). One infinity is countable, one is not.

    – Adam
    11 hours ago














    Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

    – H Walters
    11 hours ago





    Those two things aren't necessarily contradictions. Imagine an observer A falling into a black hole (ignore decay, we're simply after topology). To observer B, outside the black hole, it looks like it takes an infinite amount of time to fall past the event horizon. To A, nothing special happens, so he passes the horizon... but will eventually meet an end. Flip this picture around in time, and there's a beginning for A, but it's infinite for B (what's more, oddly, the beginning for A predates the projected infinity for B).

    – H Walters
    11 hours ago













    @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

    – Adam
    10 hours ago





    @HWalters Nice. I don't know enough about relativity to really comment about that, but would it mean to B, there is really no beginning of time (i.e. is there a symmetry that means your scenario can really be flipped around like that? There's something about an infinite future that doesn't seem quite as problematic as an infinite past, but maybe that's just me). I suppose my argument might presuppose a classical picture of time, which might be sufficient for the OP's purpose. If I qualified the entire argument with "in a particular reference frame" would that allow it to apply to relativity?

    – Adam
    10 hours ago




    1




    1





    @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

    – Adam
    10 hours ago





    @Speakpigeon Terms need definitions, and the definitions are what we unpack when we analyze. If you say that an infinite past has a beginning, because by infinite past you mean "infinite moments of time in the past", I have no issue with that. By your definition I suppose there's also an infinite past since two minutes ago too; seems a bit unusual to me, but you must apply your definitions consistently. I answered based on a charitable interpretation of what people mean by "infinite past" because I thought you were curious why people say that; it's because of how they define "infinite past".

    – Adam
    10 hours ago











    2














    It depends on exactly what you mean by an infinite past.



    Let's start by defining some terms so we can deal with this rigorously. Let t be an arbitrary time, and let t = 0 be the present. Any t < 0 is in the past; any t > 0 is in the future.



    Let us suppose now that time has a beginning; we'll place it at t = a. There exist an infinite number of instants in time between a and 0. For example: -a/2, -a/4, -a/8, etc. For any natural number n, t = -a/(2^n) is a time after a but before 0. There are a countably infinite number of natural numbers, so there are a countably infinite number of such points. (And there are also an uncountably infinite number of points in that range that are not of the form -a/(2^n).



    But we have an infinite number of elements only because we keep dividing it into smaller and smaller divisions. Suppose that instead of asking how many instants of time exist between the beginning and the present, we instead ask how many seconds there have been since the beginning of time. That number is decidedly finite.



    In summary,
    if there is a beginning of time, then there is a finite length of time between that beginning and the present, but we can divide that finite length into an infinite number of infinitesimal chunks. (Mathematically, anyway. Whether physics actually permits dividing it up that much is an open question.)






    share|improve this answer



























      2














      It depends on exactly what you mean by an infinite past.



      Let's start by defining some terms so we can deal with this rigorously. Let t be an arbitrary time, and let t = 0 be the present. Any t < 0 is in the past; any t > 0 is in the future.



      Let us suppose now that time has a beginning; we'll place it at t = a. There exist an infinite number of instants in time between a and 0. For example: -a/2, -a/4, -a/8, etc. For any natural number n, t = -a/(2^n) is a time after a but before 0. There are a countably infinite number of natural numbers, so there are a countably infinite number of such points. (And there are also an uncountably infinite number of points in that range that are not of the form -a/(2^n).



      But we have an infinite number of elements only because we keep dividing it into smaller and smaller divisions. Suppose that instead of asking how many instants of time exist between the beginning and the present, we instead ask how many seconds there have been since the beginning of time. That number is decidedly finite.



      In summary,
      if there is a beginning of time, then there is a finite length of time between that beginning and the present, but we can divide that finite length into an infinite number of infinitesimal chunks. (Mathematically, anyway. Whether physics actually permits dividing it up that much is an open question.)






      share|improve this answer

























        2












        2








        2







        It depends on exactly what you mean by an infinite past.



        Let's start by defining some terms so we can deal with this rigorously. Let t be an arbitrary time, and let t = 0 be the present. Any t < 0 is in the past; any t > 0 is in the future.



        Let us suppose now that time has a beginning; we'll place it at t = a. There exist an infinite number of instants in time between a and 0. For example: -a/2, -a/4, -a/8, etc. For any natural number n, t = -a/(2^n) is a time after a but before 0. There are a countably infinite number of natural numbers, so there are a countably infinite number of such points. (And there are also an uncountably infinite number of points in that range that are not of the form -a/(2^n).



        But we have an infinite number of elements only because we keep dividing it into smaller and smaller divisions. Suppose that instead of asking how many instants of time exist between the beginning and the present, we instead ask how many seconds there have been since the beginning of time. That number is decidedly finite.



        In summary,
        if there is a beginning of time, then there is a finite length of time between that beginning and the present, but we can divide that finite length into an infinite number of infinitesimal chunks. (Mathematically, anyway. Whether physics actually permits dividing it up that much is an open question.)






        share|improve this answer













        It depends on exactly what you mean by an infinite past.



        Let's start by defining some terms so we can deal with this rigorously. Let t be an arbitrary time, and let t = 0 be the present. Any t < 0 is in the past; any t > 0 is in the future.



        Let us suppose now that time has a beginning; we'll place it at t = a. There exist an infinite number of instants in time between a and 0. For example: -a/2, -a/4, -a/8, etc. For any natural number n, t = -a/(2^n) is a time after a but before 0. There are a countably infinite number of natural numbers, so there are a countably infinite number of such points. (And there are also an uncountably infinite number of points in that range that are not of the form -a/(2^n).



        But we have an infinite number of elements only because we keep dividing it into smaller and smaller divisions. Suppose that instead of asking how many instants of time exist between the beginning and the present, we instead ask how many seconds there have been since the beginning of time. That number is decidedly finite.



        In summary,
        if there is a beginning of time, then there is a finite length of time between that beginning and the present, but we can divide that finite length into an infinite number of infinitesimal chunks. (Mathematically, anyway. Whether physics actually permits dividing it up that much is an open question.)







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 4 hours ago









        RayRay

        22617




        22617





















            0














            To answer this, we need to visit Hilbert's hotel.



            It's an infinitely long corridor with an infinite number of rooms, and an infinite number of guests.



            One day an extra guest turns up and wants a room. Hilbert can't send him down the corridor - it will take literally forever. So he asks all the guests to move one room down the corridor. The guest in room 1 moves into room 2, the guest in room 2 moves into room 3, and so on.



            We can see that, while it was already an infinity, this does not mean that it can't be incremented by 1. An infinity does not necessarily equal another infinity.



            What if an infinitely big coach turns up with an infinite number of guests? That's ok: you just ask all the existing guests to move into the next even-numbered rooms. The guest in 1 moves into 2, the guest in 2 moves into 4, the guest in 3 moves into 6, the guest in 4 moves into 8, and so on.



            Now you have an infinity which is twice as big as it was before.



            The point here: something can have a beginning and still be infinite. It can start at zero and go all the way up to a positive infinity. It doesn't have to start from a negative infinity, or even from zero. Can you start at 100 and count infinitely upward? Yes, of course you can. It's infinite as long as it doesn't have an end.



            The stumbling block here is that, conventionally thought of, the past does have an end: the present. So there can be an infinite period of time with a beginning, but it has to stretch out into the future as well.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.















            • 1





              Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

              – curiousdannii
              5 hours ago






            • 1





              The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

              – Ross Millikan
              29 mins ago















            0














            To answer this, we need to visit Hilbert's hotel.



            It's an infinitely long corridor with an infinite number of rooms, and an infinite number of guests.



            One day an extra guest turns up and wants a room. Hilbert can't send him down the corridor - it will take literally forever. So he asks all the guests to move one room down the corridor. The guest in room 1 moves into room 2, the guest in room 2 moves into room 3, and so on.



            We can see that, while it was already an infinity, this does not mean that it can't be incremented by 1. An infinity does not necessarily equal another infinity.



            What if an infinitely big coach turns up with an infinite number of guests? That's ok: you just ask all the existing guests to move into the next even-numbered rooms. The guest in 1 moves into 2, the guest in 2 moves into 4, the guest in 3 moves into 6, the guest in 4 moves into 8, and so on.



            Now you have an infinity which is twice as big as it was before.



            The point here: something can have a beginning and still be infinite. It can start at zero and go all the way up to a positive infinity. It doesn't have to start from a negative infinity, or even from zero. Can you start at 100 and count infinitely upward? Yes, of course you can. It's infinite as long as it doesn't have an end.



            The stumbling block here is that, conventionally thought of, the past does have an end: the present. So there can be an infinite period of time with a beginning, but it has to stretch out into the future as well.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.















            • 1





              Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

              – curiousdannii
              5 hours ago






            • 1





              The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

              – Ross Millikan
              29 mins ago













            0












            0








            0







            To answer this, we need to visit Hilbert's hotel.



            It's an infinitely long corridor with an infinite number of rooms, and an infinite number of guests.



            One day an extra guest turns up and wants a room. Hilbert can't send him down the corridor - it will take literally forever. So he asks all the guests to move one room down the corridor. The guest in room 1 moves into room 2, the guest in room 2 moves into room 3, and so on.



            We can see that, while it was already an infinity, this does not mean that it can't be incremented by 1. An infinity does not necessarily equal another infinity.



            What if an infinitely big coach turns up with an infinite number of guests? That's ok: you just ask all the existing guests to move into the next even-numbered rooms. The guest in 1 moves into 2, the guest in 2 moves into 4, the guest in 3 moves into 6, the guest in 4 moves into 8, and so on.



            Now you have an infinity which is twice as big as it was before.



            The point here: something can have a beginning and still be infinite. It can start at zero and go all the way up to a positive infinity. It doesn't have to start from a negative infinity, or even from zero. Can you start at 100 and count infinitely upward? Yes, of course you can. It's infinite as long as it doesn't have an end.



            The stumbling block here is that, conventionally thought of, the past does have an end: the present. So there can be an infinite period of time with a beginning, but it has to stretch out into the future as well.






            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.










            To answer this, we need to visit Hilbert's hotel.



            It's an infinitely long corridor with an infinite number of rooms, and an infinite number of guests.



            One day an extra guest turns up and wants a room. Hilbert can't send him down the corridor - it will take literally forever. So he asks all the guests to move one room down the corridor. The guest in room 1 moves into room 2, the guest in room 2 moves into room 3, and so on.



            We can see that, while it was already an infinity, this does not mean that it can't be incremented by 1. An infinity does not necessarily equal another infinity.



            What if an infinitely big coach turns up with an infinite number of guests? That's ok: you just ask all the existing guests to move into the next even-numbered rooms. The guest in 1 moves into 2, the guest in 2 moves into 4, the guest in 3 moves into 6, the guest in 4 moves into 8, and so on.



            Now you have an infinity which is twice as big as it was before.



            The point here: something can have a beginning and still be infinite. It can start at zero and go all the way up to a positive infinity. It doesn't have to start from a negative infinity, or even from zero. Can you start at 100 and count infinitely upward? Yes, of course you can. It's infinite as long as it doesn't have an end.



            The stumbling block here is that, conventionally thought of, the past does have an end: the present. So there can be an infinite period of time with a beginning, but it has to stretch out into the future as well.







            share|improve this answer








            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer






            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.









            answered 8 hours ago









            Ne MoNe Mo

            1092




            1092




            New contributor




            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.





            New contributor





            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.






            Ne Mo is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
            Check out our Code of Conduct.







            • 1





              Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

              – curiousdannii
              5 hours ago






            • 1





              The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

              – Ross Millikan
              29 mins ago












            • 1





              Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

              – curiousdannii
              5 hours ago






            • 1





              The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

              – Ross Millikan
              29 mins ago







            1




            1





            Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

            – curiousdannii
            5 hours ago





            Okay, you've explained how there can be an infinite past with an end, but not, I don't think, an infinite past with a beginning.

            – curiousdannii
            5 hours ago




            1




            1





            The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

            – Ross Millikan
            29 mins ago





            The problem is that Hilbert's hotel is well ordered because the rooms are numbered like the naturals. A well order is defined to not have an infinite descending chain. OP wants an infinite descending chain.

            – Ross Millikan
            29 mins ago











            0














            We can simply define a set called the negatively extended integers. It consists of the usual integers plus a, which is like minus infinity. We then define that a is less than all the usual integers. Now a is the minimum of our set, so it is the beginning. At any point of the set that is not a there are infinitely many predecessors. This is a fine totally ordered (as times should be) set that meets your requirement.






            share|improve this answer























            • This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

              – user4894
              9 mins ago











            • @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

              – Ross Millikan
              7 mins ago















            0














            We can simply define a set called the negatively extended integers. It consists of the usual integers plus a, which is like minus infinity. We then define that a is less than all the usual integers. Now a is the minimum of our set, so it is the beginning. At any point of the set that is not a there are infinitely many predecessors. This is a fine totally ordered (as times should be) set that meets your requirement.






            share|improve this answer























            • This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

              – user4894
              9 mins ago











            • @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

              – Ross Millikan
              7 mins ago













            0












            0








            0







            We can simply define a set called the negatively extended integers. It consists of the usual integers plus a, which is like minus infinity. We then define that a is less than all the usual integers. Now a is the minimum of our set, so it is the beginning. At any point of the set that is not a there are infinitely many predecessors. This is a fine totally ordered (as times should be) set that meets your requirement.






            share|improve this answer













            We can simply define a set called the negatively extended integers. It consists of the usual integers plus a, which is like minus infinity. We then define that a is less than all the usual integers. Now a is the minimum of our set, so it is the beginning. At any point of the set that is not a there are infinitely many predecessors. This is a fine totally ordered (as times should be) set that meets your requirement.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 34 mins ago









            Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

            1703




            1703












            • This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

              – user4894
              9 mins ago











            • @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

              – Ross Millikan
              7 mins ago

















            • This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

              – user4894
              9 mins ago











            • @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

              – Ross Millikan
              7 mins ago
















            This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

            – user4894
            9 mins ago





            This doesn't work. -infinity is not the direct predecessor of any negative integer. You can't start at -1, say, and work your way back to the beginning.

            – user4894
            9 mins ago













            @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

            – Ross Millikan
            7 mins ago





            @user4894: I didn't see that we were asked for that. In fact, we can't have it. We want infinitely many predecessors of -1, so we can't get to the beginning. I have both a beginning and infinitely many predecessors of -1.

            – Ross Millikan
            7 mins ago

















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